On one die, the probability of getting a number between 1 and 3 (inclusive) is 3/6 or 50%. The probability of getting a number not between 1 and 3 is also 50%.
Since this question has so many possibilities, it is simpler if you solve the inverse: find the probability that *none* of them is a number between 1 and 3.
That probability is 50% * 50% * 50% = 12.5%
So, the probability that at least one is a number between 1 and 3 is (100% - 12.5%) = 87.5%.
2007-01-17 06:10:39
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answer #1
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answered by computerguy103 6
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A lot of times with questions like this, it's easier to compute the chance that the event WON'T happen than that it will.
The event WON'T happen if all 3 dice show either 4, 5, or 6. For each die, the probability of that happening is 3/6, or 1/2. So the probability of it happening for all three dice is 1/2 × 1/2 × 1/2:
3/6 × 3/6 × 3/6 = 1/2 × 1/2 × 1/2 = 1/8
So the chance that AT LEAST ONE of them is a number between 1 and 3 is 1 minus the probability that NONE of them have numbers between 1 and 3:
1 - 1/8 = 7/8 = 0.875, or 87.5%.
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For your followup question, if at least one has to be a 1 or 2, then in order for it NOT to happen, all three dice would have to show 3, 4, 5, or 6. The probability of that happening is 4/6 for each die:
4/6 × 4/6 × 4/6 = 2/3 × 2/3 × 2/3 = 8/27
So the chance that AT LEAST ONE of them is a number between 1 and 2 is 1 minus the probability that NONE of them have numbers between 1 and 2:
1 - 8/27 = 19/27 = 0.703703703, or about 70.37%.
2007-01-17 06:08:09
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answer #2
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answered by Jim Burnell 6
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Okay, for one die, P{1,2,3} = 3/6 = 1/2, P{4,5,6} = 3/6 = 1/2.
Let's take your question and ask the opposite.
What is the chance none of the three is 1, 2 or 3?
That is easy:
P{4,5,6} x P{4,5,6} x P{4,5,6} = 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2 = 1/8
Now since either one or more dice come up 1-3 OR none do, their probabilties add to 1, so the answer is 1 - 1/8 = 7/8.
2007-01-17 06:14:27
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answer #3
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answered by novangelis 7
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since you already have the first one answered, the second part is the same way, but using 2/3 for "losing". So 2/3 * 2/3 *2/3 = 8/27. and 1-8/27 = 19/27.
so you have a 19/27 chance of having a 1 or 2
2007-01-17 07:41:54
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answer #4
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answered by matthewjc314 3
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Each die has a 50/50 chance of being 3 or less. To not get at least 1 in that range, the chance is (.5) cubed, or 1 in 8. So the chance to get at least 1 die 3 or less is 7 out of 8, or 87.5%
2007-01-17 06:14:12
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answer #5
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answered by dentroll 3
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chance that one die roll gives you a number between 1 and 3 is 50%. (There are six sides, you "win" if you get any one of three of them)
Of the 8 possible outcomes of a roll of three dice, (Y = got a 1-3, N = rolled 4-6), only one of them gives a role with no "winner".
So the chance is 7/8 that at least one die will have 1-3.
N N N
N N Y
N Y N
N Y Y
Y N N
Y N Y
Y Y N
Y Y Y
2007-01-17 06:12:40
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answer #6
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answered by DanE 7
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The chance that the first one is NOT between 1 and 3 (I assume you mean 1,2,or 3...in the truest sense, only the number 2 is between 1 and 3, but I'm guessing you mean 1-3 inclusive) is 3/6, or 0.5. The chance that the second one is also not 1-3 is also 0.5. Same for the third one. So the chance that all three are not 1-3 is (0.5)(0.5)(0.5), or 0.125. So the chance that at least one IS between 1 and 3 is 1-0.125, or 0.875 (87.5%)
2007-01-17 06:12:30
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answer #7
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answered by Grizzly B 3
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Each die has a 50% chance of NOT being in that range.
So the chance of ALL dice being NOT in that range is (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2), or (1/8)
Hence, the chance that at least one is in that range is 1 - (1/8), or (7/8).
2007-01-17 06:09:27
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answer #8
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answered by Bramblyspam 7
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there is 18 possibilities and 3 numbers on each dice so 3by3 is 9 and 9 over 18 is on half
2007-01-17 06:10:38
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answer #9
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answered by new@make-up 1
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0.875 or 87.5%
2007-01-17 06:12:13
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answer #10
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answered by olly_oconnell10 1
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