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Shakespeare was made resident playwright/owner/manager of the royal theatre troupe, The Lord Chamberlain's Men (thanks for the correction, Aiden402--and later The King's Men). His London theatre, The Globe, received royal subsidies. The fact is that in Shakespeare's time almost all artists had wealthy patrons--few artists could afford to survive without courting aristocratic supporters.

That's the most obvious answer. But if you read the Lancastrian tetralogy of plays (that's Richard II, the 1st and 2nd parts of Henry IV, and Henry V), you'll also notice the not-so-subtle themes of nationalism...some would say jingoism. These plays trace Elizabeth I's Tudor heritage, and by making her ancestors look like moral, upstanding, God-ordained rulers, Shakespeare was also supporting her claim to the throne.

2007-01-17 05:27:55 · answer #1 · answered by waldy 4 · 1 0

According to Ben Jonson, Shakespeare's plays were admired by Elizabeth. Indeed, during the last ten years of her reign, the Lord Chamberlain's Men performed at court thirty-two times, compared to thirty-seven performances by all other companies combined.

There is also a tradition that The Merry Wives of Windsor was written because of the Queen's desire to see Falstaff in love.

and this, written, indeed, by Queen Elizabeth I....

Sweet Swan of Avon! What a sight it were
To see thee in our waters yet appear
And make those flights upon the banks of Thames,
That so did take Eliza, and our James.

James was a fan of the theater and upon his accession Shakespeare's company became The King's Men, which also required them to act as courtiers – something the poet wasn't keen on.

2007-01-17 05:29:12 · answer #2 · answered by aidan402 6 · 1 0

His plays were performed for the court.

2007-01-17 05:20:10 · answer #3 · answered by Elven 3 · 0 0

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