English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

4 answers

if a = b and b=c, then a has to be the same as c.
i.e.
a = b = c

2007-01-16 19:14:16 · answer #1 · answered by Kinu Sharma 2 · 0 2

By a/b, I am going to take it to mean "a divides b".

Proof:

Assuming a divides b. It then follows that

a = bj, for some integer j.

Assume that b divides c. Then,

b = ck, for some integer k.

Substituting in b = ck for a = bj, we get

a = (ck)j, OR
a = c(jk).

Since jk is an integer, it follows that

a divides c.

2007-01-17 03:11:22 · answer #2 · answered by Puggy 7 · 2 0

If a|b, then, it exists an integer m/ b=ma

If b|c, then, it exists an integer p/ c = pb

Since c = pb = p (ma) = (pm) a, then it exists an integer j= pm, so that c = ja. Hence, a|c

Ana

2007-01-17 03:12:54 · answer #3 · answered by MathTutor 6 · 2 0

Because if a = b and b=c, then a has to be the same as c.
a=b=c

2007-01-17 03:09:47 · answer #4 · answered by angie20k 4 · 0 1

fedest.com, questions and answers