Does anyone know the name of the case involving a woman who had been raped but before actually being raped she asked him to at least use a condom (so that she wouldn't get sick or end up pregnant)? The court came to the conclusion that since she asked him to use a condom, that it was no longer considered rape and that the intercourse was then "legitimate"
I think the case went through all the courts of appeals but never actually made it to the supreme court, if that helps...
thanks in advance for all your efforts! :)
2007-01-16
14:53:40
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2 answers
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asked by
Hola Lola!
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Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics
sorry, I remember something about giving consent to use a condom therefore it would not be rape... somehting along those lines if it helps.
2007-01-16
14:55:47 ·
update #1