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Does anyone know the name of the case involving a woman who had been raped but before actually being raped she asked him to at least use a condom (so that she wouldn't get sick or end up pregnant)? The court came to the conclusion that since she asked him to use a condom, that it was no longer considered rape and that the intercourse was then "legitimate"

I think the case went through all the courts of appeals but never actually made it to the supreme court, if that helps...
thanks in advance for all your efforts! :)

2007-01-16 14:53:40 · 2 answers · asked by Hola Lola! 2 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

sorry, I remember something about giving consent to use a condom therefore it would not be rape... somehting along those lines if it helps.

2007-01-16 14:55:47 · update #1

2 answers

"Austin, Texas--The rape case in which a woman being raped asked the attacker to wear a condom to prevent HIV infection went to trial on Monday. In September, a grand jury refused to indict Joel Rene Valdez, the so-called "condom rapist," saying the victim's request that he wear a condom during the alleged attack implied consent. The decision spurred widespread outrage. The Travis County district attorney's office decided to take the case to a new grand jury after the initial grand jury ruling incited a courthouse demonstration and dozens of phone calls opposing the decision. Testimony is scheduled to begin today when the alleged victim takes the stand. If Valdez is convicted, he faces a jail term of 5 to 99 years. Lynn Thompson Hass, the executive director of the Austin Rape Crisis Center, said it was not uncommon for rapists to wear condoms, but usually not at the victim's demand."http://www.aegis.com/news/ads/1993/AD930868.html

2007-01-16 15:07:50 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

It would help a lot if you could give an approx. Date. Then try findlaw's appeals courts database. State is also really helpful. http://www.findlaw.com/casecode/

2007-01-16 23:01:37 · answer #2 · answered by The Big Box 6 · 0 0

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