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We had an interesting dilemma at at our table a couple of days ago.

It was six people playing. The blinds were 1,000 & 2,000 (play money). The first position checked. The second position went all in with $3000. The third position called the $3000. The fourth and fifth positions folded. The person in the first position decides he will raise up to $4,000.

The person in the third position (who had previously called) cries out that the person in the first position could not do that. He states that since the person in the 2nd position could not cover a legitimate raise (2x the big blind) that his all-in should not considered a raise and that the person in the 1st position (since he had originally checked) was not entitled to raise.

Does the person in 1st position have the right to check-raise?

2007-01-16 09:28:47 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Games & Recreation Card Games

6 answers

Im a little confused bt the question. This was after the flop??? or before?

if we are assuming it is preflop then how can the person in first position check? Do you mean he called the 2000? If so, and then the person in 2nd position raised it up to 3000 all in, then it is NOT a complete raise, and the person in first position cannot reraise ... he has to call or fold. So yes i then do agree the person in 3rd position

If this was after the flop, and the person 1 checked and person 2 went all in for 3000, then person 1 can reraise if he wants, but he would have to make it at least 6000 to go or be all in

Hope this answers your question ... i did the best i can based on the wording of your question

2007-01-16 10:02:51 · answer #1 · answered by Bill F 6 · 0 0

He is allowed to raise you because the other person opened up the betting again. He should have made it 6000 to be a raise, he can't make it 4000, he must make it 6000 minimum. He has the option to raise in that situation. In some situation he would only be able to call, like if a player bet 3000 and the other player went all in for 3200 and the third player just called the bet, then you can only call because no raise was made, only full raises can count in a no limit game. But in the hand you described he has the option to make it a minimum of 6000 not 4000.

2007-01-17 02:31:01 · answer #2 · answered by sincity usa 7 · 0 0

If your playing no-limit hold'em (without caps) and if there is a bet or raise on the table (one player has bet or raised more then another player), then any active player (has not folded), upon their turn, can raise or reraise.

Only a capped no-limit hold'em or limit games restrict the maximum bet/raise/reraise amount (see Full Tilt Poker for capped NL TH games). For a capped game, once the bet/raise/reraise reachs the cap amount, no further raises/reraises are allowed. Example, a $1/$2 no-limit game may be capped at $60. That is, any player can not put more than $60 into a pot on any one hand.

Limits and caps are decided before the game starts or changed upon agreement of all players.

2007-01-18 22:37:41 · answer #3 · answered by James M 1 · 0 0

The question is worded oddly but I think i understand. If you play by professional rules then the person who tried to raise to 4000 which, I assume was the big blind since he would act last preflop, would only be allowed to call becuase the all in raise wasn't twice the big blind, but since your not playing in vegas its up to you but even if you allowed that player to raise he should have to raise to 6000 then becuase 3000 was that last bet and all rasies have to be in incriments of 3000 then.

2007-01-17 17:21:43 · answer #4 · answered by Sleeves 3 · 0 0

he can raise/check. In this situation a side pot would be created and the other people still in could put money into that side pot.it gets confusing for where the money goes after that.but he can do that and is allowed to if he liked..but it causes a lot of fuss and bother.

2007-01-16 17:33:16 · answer #5 · answered by jon f 4 · 1 1

Here - print the rules out at http://www.pokerplayday.com

2007-01-16 23:27:02 · answer #6 · answered by mexizona 2 · 0 0

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