Assume a function F = F1(x) F2(y)
where x = X + x', y = Y + y'. X is a mean value and x' the fluctuation about mean.
F ~ [F1(X) + (dF1/dx) x'] [F1(Y) + (dF2/dy) y']; this uses 0th and 1st order approximation of Taylor series expansion; derivatives are expressed at mean value X and Y.
So F ~ F1(X) F2(Y) + (dF1/dx) (dF2/dy) x'y'; here I took the average of F, so that the average of x' and y' is zero.
My question is that I'm dealing with large fluctuations about the mean and I found that F cannot be approximate by a Taylor series expansion even when I take higher order terms. Should I give up on this, or is there a better way of expanding functions with large fluctuations about mean?
Any help is appreciated, and please contact me if you need clarifications.
2007-01-16
09:03:53
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2 answers
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asked by
ben
1
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Mathematics
Thanks for Scarlet time and answer. Here are few more details about this problem:
1- function F (and F1, F2) are know mathematically. Say F1 = x^2 g(x), where g has a bit complicated form to write here, but I can consider it as a constant (one) for the purpose of solving this problem.
F2 = y^1.5
Here, of course, x and y are periodic functions of time (I don't know these functions but I can compute it by solving transient PDE's of a multiphase flow). The whole purpose of doing this is to avoid running transient and time-consuming simulations, so we do some kind of RANS approach for this problem.
The time average x'y' is not small; and higher orders such as x'x'y'y' that come from high order Taylor series are even larger in mag. So it doesn't matter if derivatives are decreasing because higher order fluctuations such as x'y'^2 and x'^2y'^2 are much larger than for e.g. x'y'.
2007-01-17
01:53:38 ·
update #1