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During that time period, did Russians (peasants and landowners) really "own" land or was it fully controlled by the gov? THen how did land tenure work? did the gov give landowners land to harvest and landowners divided sections for serfs to cultivate? What were their relationships? Was there any taxing on land and did the emancipation of serfs greatly affect agrarian reform in Russia? Please help!!!!

2007-01-16 08:57:33 · 2 answers · asked by Vivian C 1 in Arts & Humanities History

2 answers

By the mid-eighteenth century, the serfs composed a majority of the population, according to the census of 1857 the number of serfs was 23.1 million of the 62.5 million of Russians.

Russian serfdom depended entirely on the traditional and extensive technology of the peasantry. Yields remained low and stationary throughout most of the nineteenth century. Any increase in income drawn from agriculture was drawn largely through increasing land area and extensive grain raising by means of exploitation of the peasant labor, that is, by burdening the peasant household still further.

In Russian Baltic provinces (Courland, Estonia, Livonia) serfdom, however, was abolished at the beginning of 19th century.

In 1861 all serfs were freed in a major agrarian reform, stimulated by the fear voiced by Tsar Alexander II that "it is better to liberate the peasants from above" than to wait until they won their freedom by risings "from below." Serfdom was abolished in 1861, but its abolition was achieved on terms unfavorable to the peasants and served to increase revolutionary pressures.

2007-01-16 10:18:21 · answer #1 · answered by CanProf 7 · 0 0

yeah their economy was based on agriculture because their work force was made up of serfs/slaves they had a little infdusty but not much

2007-01-16 17:55:41 · answer #2 · answered by rwfjr091 2 · 0 0

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