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2007-01-16 05:40:54 · 3 answers · asked by bubito04 1 in Arts & Humanities History

3 answers

In a way, it should be trilingualism. English, due to the British that came in the XVII century. Spanish, because the Spaniards arrived in Florida in the XVI century and also because half of Mexico was stolen and incorporated to the USA, together with the population living on it. Besides, most of the immigrants nowadays speak Spanish and they compose the largest minority in the USA . French, because in the Louisiana still live French speaking people, descendants from the inhabitants who were there when the USA government purchased that land

2007-01-16 11:35:05 · answer #1 · answered by Dios es amor 6 · 0 0

The main origins of bilingualism is because the original colonies were ruled by different countries. The East Coast colonies were governed by England, the Midwest area was ruled by France, and the West and Southwest were under Spain's rule. Spain just happens to be the language that stuck because they had a broader Empire in Latin and South Americas where their language stuck and eventually those peoples immigrated to the United States and brought their language with them.

2007-01-16 06:18:26 · answer #2 · answered by Maverick 6 · 0 0

duh!!!!! Where did Americans come from? Only Native Americans were here when English folk arrives. When they c communicated with the pilgrim, I guess they were bilingual.

2007-01-16 06:03:34 · answer #3 · answered by blou 1 · 0 1

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