Including specific examples and legal precedence to support your opinion.
2007-01-16 04:59:26 · 8 answers · asked by Andrew P 3 in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
NO...that is a religious issue, not a legislative one. We already walk a fine line on between religious issues and legislative ones. This is clearly religion based from the far right fundamentalist because there is no real legal issue involved. JMO
2007-01-16 05:16:39 · answer #1 · answered by MM Fan 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
NO
The Constitution is not the forum for religious or morality issues, which the definition of marriage falls under. Marriage is the union between two people and does not definte it is between a man and a women, or two of the same gender.
People need to leave their religious bigotry at home and not force their values on others.
2007-01-16 05:09:55 · answer #2 · answered by banananose_89117 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No.
Our Constitution is not intended to enforce specific religious dogma. It's a bad idea, and against the spirit of the document itself.
2007-01-16 05:05:40 · answer #3 · answered by Samurai Jack 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Acording to the 9th and 10th Amendment it should belong to the States and the people.
Plus with the full faith and credit clause, all states need to recgonize all acts of othe states
which most certainly do not
2007-01-16 05:04:24 · answer #4 · answered by tardis1977 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Absolutely not. Marriage is regulated by the states. It is the state's jurisdiction and any regulation has to be done at the state level.
2007-01-16 05:45:52 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, that's ridiculous. The government has no business defining a society's customs, rituals or beliefs.
2007-01-16 05:03:22 · answer #6 · answered by Pfo 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
no - that is a State's rights issue.
2007-01-16 05:14:39 · answer #7 · answered by truth seeker 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. It's a waste of time and taxes.
2007-01-16 05:07:25 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋