2007-01-16 04:29:16 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Shakespeare wrote during the reigns of Elizabeth the First, and James the First (James the Sixth of Scotland).
2007-01-16 04:34:33 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Elizabeth I and then James I (alias James VI of Scotland). That was why he had to write plays in which the House of York were vilified (notably Richard III) and the House of Lancaster (from which the Tudors were descended were an excellent bunch of people. Given that Elizabeth I came to see some of his plays when performed in the Inns of Court in London, this was a wise move on Shakespeare's part.
Elizabeth died on 24 March 1603 and the new monarch, James, was a fan of the theatre. James loved the arts and was very generous to actors, playwrights, and other performers of the day. In particular, James I loved the theatre, and was captivated by Shakespeare's acting troupe, the Chamberlain's Men. Within ten days of arriving in London, James demanded that Shakespeare's troupe come under his own patronage. So they were granted a royal patent and changed their names to the King's Men, in honour of King James. It was indeed lucky for the King's Men that James held them in such high regard, for in 1603, England saw its worst outbreak of the plague in decades, and all the theatres had to be closed. Shakespeare and his troupe were not out of work, however, because James provided them with many engagements, performing for royalty outside of the infected London area. By 1608 the King's Men had a permanent winter home at the Blackfriar's Theatre and they played to a mostly rich and well-educated audience (they spent the summer months at the Globe). Their creativity began to flourish and they are credited with starting the new style of Jacobean drama.
2007-01-16 13:13:34 · answer #2 · answered by Doethineb 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would say that Elizabeth the first was queen of England during Shakespeare's time as well as her successor, King James I (or James VI of Scotland).
2007-01-16 13:01:20 · answer #3 · answered by chrstnwrtr 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Queen Elizabeth I then James VI of Scotland (I of England) from 1603.
2007-01-16 12:35:17 · answer #4 · answered by Cat burgler 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Was it Elizabeth 1? Not a clue on the king, sorry.
2007-01-16 12:35:02 · answer #5 · answered by thegenius 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Liz 1 and Jimmy 1(england) 6 (scotland)
2007-01-16 12:37:00 · answer #6 · answered by Redhead 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Elizabeth 1 i belive he makes a reference to her in one of his plays
2007-01-19 07:21:28 · answer #7 · answered by srracvuee 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Elizabeth I; James I
2007-01-16 12:36:07 · answer #8 · answered by Conservative 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
He wrote one about Henry the 8th
2007-01-16 12:36:14 · answer #9 · answered by Amber W 1 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Lizzie One and Jamie One. (Although Jamie was a sixer back home!)
2007-01-16 12:38:53 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋