2007-01-16 01:19:32 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Very simple reasoning:
"Gimme ur money or die!!"
I'm not so sure about the Soviets but for the Nazis, this can be traced all the way back to the party's formation. They would threaten bankers (especially Jews) like they were conducting a pogrom, demanding that they forfeit some of their belongings.
Also (I googled Nazi Bankers to find this article) the Swiss had to preserve their neutrality and sovereignty somehow. The Nazis could have swept in and taken them over in a snap, so what did they do? Managed Nazi accounts.
http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/hi/35938.stm
For the Soviets, I suspect it's a matter of corruption and positioning rather than sheer survival. Bankers hold a viable interest in government just as much as anyone else, so making sure their property wasn't confiscated is definitely a good reason to bribe and back the party in power.
2007-01-16 02:20:01 · answer #1 · answered by Mikey C 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It could have been just business as usual. If I recall, Hitler wasn't too enthused about world central bank very much.
It would be easier to imagine why they'd finance Stalin, since so many seem to link Communism, not for themselves, but for others.
2007-01-16 09:30:58 · answer #2 · answered by Benvenuto 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
IBM gave them the computers to process the victims.
2007-01-16 09:30:10 · answer #3 · answered by Jamie 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because money always follows power - capitalism has no idealism.
2007-01-19 11:06:27 · answer #4 · answered by Sairey G 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋