2007-01-14 17:07:57 · 5 answers · asked by mhrhashemi 3 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
It depends; if there is an accomplice to the crime they will likely be responsible as well. If it is a civil matter(the death occurred as a result of a car accident, or being hit by a car as a pedestrian, for example) in some jurisdictions, damage awards can be lessened to the degree that the deceased was found to be negligent, if any(if, for example, the person crossed a street against a light and was hit).
2007-01-14 17:16:49 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Dont really understand your question...so this is just a guess at what you meant....
sometimes there are mitigating circumstances...
for example
"heat of passion crimes' where the killer blames the victim for being in a compromising position....(ie, man walks in on his wife having sex in his bed with another man)
or when the killer says
"i was abused' (ie menedez brothers, Susan smith etc)
2007-01-15 01:15:49 · answer #2 · answered by kissmymiddlefinger 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Do you mean when the judge sentences the killer to death?
The killer is the only one responsible for his crime, and he is ultimately responsible, through his actions, for his execution.
2007-01-15 01:11:45 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
An eye for an eye, a tooth for a tooth. Death for death, the penalty for death is for someone who committed a crime resulting to death and no other.
2007-01-15 01:15:33 · answer #4 · answered by FRAGINAL, JTM 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
No, not if he acted with the knowledge & help of other accomplices.
2007-01-15 01:15:22 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋