I've been a homeowner before, with my ex-husband. If this is the first time I'm purchasing on my own after divorce, can I be considered a first-time buyer?
2007-01-14 13:21:38 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Business & Finance ➔ Renting & Real Estate
hmmm..wanna try this...If you were using a married name..Go back to your madian.....Hence a name that doesn't show your previous ownership...But with todays market you'll find all sorts of good deals..
good luck
2007-01-14 13:39:14 · answer #1 · answered by overhereyoupretty 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think it depends if your name was on the papers before, or who's name was first. Although that may not matter at all. I was also told in the state of Ohio if you haven't owned a home in a certain amount of years, I think it was around 5 or so? You are considered a first time home owner all over again because of the length of time since you've owned or lived in your previous home. Good luck!
2007-01-14 13:29:33 · answer #2 · answered by amason1226 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No.
2007-01-14 13:30:55 · answer #3 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋