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Our professor in sociology asked us this question. I'm just looking for some concrete answers. Thanks!

2007-01-14 13:13:20 · 5 answers · asked by Jack Ryan 1 in Social Science Sociology

5 answers

Yes, look at the breakup of colonialism in Europe after WW2. All the major colonial powers (England, France, Germany, Netherlands, etc.) washed their hands of most of their colonies in Africa, Mid-East, and Asia. These colonies were now free to form their own nations.

Especially look at England and how they effectively handed sovereignty to India and Arabia and Israel.

2007-01-14 15:18:05 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The answer is yes--if that other nation has sovereignty in the first place. For example, the British restored "granted" sovereignty to most of their colonial possessions after WW2 (ex: India). But Britain would have nothing to say about the sovereignty of other nations, or what arrangements they might make.

But--that doesn't mean other nations always recognize the legitimacy of a government-or a claim of independance (soverignty). For example, when the Taliban gained power in Afghanistan following the defeat of the Russian invasion, practially no one recognized them as legitimate.

I've skipped over the question about "do peoplehave a right to self-determination?"--to decide their own status as a society or a group. That's a philosophical debate, not a sociological one.

2007-01-14 23:29:27 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I hate to have to argue with the other responders but the answer is a loud and resounding "no". Why is it that I'm always on the opposite of everyone else?

Sovereignty means supreme control without outside influence. Surpeme power can't be given to someone because that act in itself denies the receiver the power to decide.

It's like the word "democracy". It means one vote per person in its most basic form. Problem is, in a democracy, your very first vote is in who you want to represent you and to decide for you. Once you give away that power to decide to someone else, you're no longer living in a democracy.

A very wise person once said "no democracy lives past its first vote". Don't research it, it was me lol

If you're a slave, even if your master frees you, you're admitting that someone else has the power to decide for you. If he can decide to free you, then he has the power to enslave you too, and you no longer have sovereignty.

A great example would be the apes in the Planet of the Apes movie series. Apes were slaves to humans. They weren't given their freedom....they took it one day when the first ape said "no" to a human. By taking the power to decide your fate from anyone else and deciding yourself, you gain freedom and sovereignty.

Israel is another prime example. It was formed by the UN as a separate entity. It didn't gain its sovereignty until it fought to maintain that separate status on its own. If it hadn't have decided to decide on its own and fight for that decision, it would have fallen back to the UN to defend it and that again destroys its sovereignty.

And contrary to my esteemed colleagues' opinions, England didn't grant sovereignty to India willingly. It simply finally admitted that after losing so many men in war, it could no longer maintain its hold. If it could have, it would still be a part of England and not a separate country.

2007-01-15 01:34:10 · answer #3 · answered by randkl 6 · 0 0

EITHER,

because 1. your teacher does not know "exactly" what each country can or cant do. 2. a country can please itself what it can or cant do ... FACT
.

2007-01-15 03:59:35 · answer #4 · answered by Truth D 4 · 0 1

who knows??.......not me!!

2007-01-14 21:17:50 · answer #5 · answered by VolleyballSpiker<3 2 · 0 0

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