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2007-01-14 12:11:27 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

10 answers

This is an old old russian mathematical joke from like the 17th century. Who told you this?

Anyway the answer is TIME

2007-01-14 12:30:16 · answer #1 · answered by PrettyEskimo 4 · 0 0

I believe this is Euclid's first proposition. If two things are equal to another thing then they are equal. There is no way to prove this rigorously except from some other axioms. In fact there is a paradox written by Lewis Carroll In a short piece called "What the Tortoise said to Achilles" where in essence he gives reasoning that believing If a=b and b=c imply a=c is only do to our common sense of language and reasoning.
Or you are talking about something else entirely.
Just as a note if a

2007-01-14 12:30:21 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Actually, if we use the equal sign = to denote "equal strength" or likelihood of either of 2 specially marked dices to win, when thrown together, then it's quite possible to have 3 specially marked dices a, b, c, such that when thrown together dices a and b have equal chance of winning, and dices b and c have equal chances of winning, but dices a and c do NOT have equal chances of winning! Of course, the regular dices with faces marked 1 to 6 won't work in this case. So, do I get my 10 points?

2007-01-14 12:41:17 · answer #3 · answered by Scythian1950 7 · 0 0

This is a basic axiom of mathematics. It is thought to be so self evident that it is accepted without proof. The answer is that nothing can cause a to <> c.

2007-01-14 12:20:24 · answer #4 · answered by ironduke8159 7 · 0 0

The transitive property of equality says that if a = b and b = c, then a = c. There is no way for what you are describing to be true.

2007-01-14 12:17:52 · answer #5 · answered by DavidK93 7 · 0 0

A mistake in the definition of terms, or in the computation of the elements.

2007-01-14 12:22:23 · answer #6 · answered by angusgoodson 2 · 0 0

This is always true because of the transitive property.

2007-01-14 12:28:56 · answer #7 · answered by Audy 1 · 0 0

Nothing. This is always true. (Are you sure that the symbol is = and not >and< or the Union/Join operators?)

2007-01-14 12:16:12 · answer #8 · answered by Michael H 2 · 1 0

Mathematically not possible.

2007-01-14 12:16:30 · answer #9 · answered by Rick H 1 · 1 0

If a=b and b=c then a=c
That is logical

2007-01-14 12:23:30 · answer #10 · answered by wolf 6 · 0 0

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