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and you are told that when we divide x + 1 into f(x) then the remainder is 0. Based on this information which of these statements is necessarily true?
a= f(1)=0
b= f(0)=1
c= f(-1)=0
d= f (0)=-1

2007-01-14 07:05:35 · 4 answers · asked by pkbrauer 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

4 answers

If f(x) divisible by x+1 with no remainder, then
f(x) = (x+1)*Q(x)
So f(-1) = (-1+1)Q(x) = 0*Q(x)=0
The answer is c: f(-1) =0

2007-01-14 07:15:00 · answer #1 · answered by ironduke8159 7 · 0 0

The remainder theorem says: If p is a polynomial over
the rationals and x-a is a factor of p then a is a zero of p.
So the answer is c: f(-1) = 0.

2007-01-14 15:16:42 · answer #2 · answered by steiner1745 7 · 0 0

c) This is remainder theorem.

2007-01-14 15:10:20 · answer #3 · answered by keely_66 3 · 0 0

C

2007-01-14 15:18:57 · answer #4 · answered by purple121593 3 · 0 0

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