2007-01-14 00:01:54 · 18 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
40%
2007-01-14 00:04:22 · answer #1 · answered by J♥R♥R 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Sorry, all the answers I looked at so far are wrong.
Odds are different from probability. If the probability of something happening is 2/5, that means there are 2 chances of its happening compared to 3 chances of its not happening. That makes the odds
3 to 2 against.
If you doubt this, think about bookmaker jargon (if you've heard it). Something at ":long odds", e.g. 25:1, is unlikely. In fact this means if you bet $1 on it, and it happens, you get back your $1 plus $25 winnings. The bookmaker will offer such odds only if the event is considered unlikely, in fact these odds correspond to a probability of 1:26 of the event happening.
2007-01-14 00:16:24 · answer #2 · answered by Hy 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The odds would be 3/2.
2007-01-14 05:16:12 · answer #3 · answered by CSUFGrad2006 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
2/5=.4 or 40%
2007-01-14 00:33:26 · answer #4 · answered by santmann2002 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
2:4
2007-01-14 00:14:52 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
You have a 40% chance of winning.
2007-01-14 00:07:45 · answer #6 · answered by lee98610 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
your odds would be 2:5
2007-01-14 01:06:49 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
40% is the correct answer
100 ./. 5 =20
2x20=40
2007-01-14 00:05:32 · answer #8 · answered by moonlight_is_harmonious_1 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
the answers i found here r wrorng .the correct answer should be 3 coz this comes out from probability about odds and even i.e. prob of happening or not happenning of an event
2007-01-14 00:31:03 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
3:2
It's determined by losing chances : winning chances
For example, 100:1 means that for every 100 losses, you'll get one win.
2007-01-14 00:20:49 · answer #10 · answered by dennismeng90 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋