2007-01-13 21:37:41 · 10 answers · asked by robert p 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Corporations
Good Question!!!
Fares Al-Sagri
2007-01-13 21:44:52 · answer #1 · answered by fox 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
If you list terms and conditions such as "by signing this document ....." you could make it more binding - however I would seke legal advice as to whether it is legally binding. As another answer states - you can't just produce a sales invoice and say now you are obliged to pay me! Also, if it is a service - you can always refuse to pay if it was not of the right standard - or you can at least question it. If it applies to products there is a law that states you have to offer a refund if the good s are unwanted - you as a business are able to specify the returns period. Some businesses have a 'cool-down' period in which time you may cancel the order. However - there are different laws depsning on if the transaction was trade or retail - have a look at the trading standards website for further information:
http://www.tradingstandards.gov.uk/
click on the link 'for businesses' or 'consumers' depdning what you are - as as i said - different laws apply.
2007-01-13 22:34:45 · answer #2 · answered by iou 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A sales invoice would only be issued once the goods or service have been received.
I presume, a request for information with the intent of purchasing the goods or service, is an invitation to treat. or that an official order requesting the good, to be charged to ..... to the value of .... as quoted on .... is an invitation to treat.
The delivery of the goods/services is the confirmation of a contract and an invoice is just a method of payment / receipt work the good/service
2007-01-15 02:58:39 · answer #3 · answered by speedball182 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope ...
Before the Internet one of the quite well known scams was to deliver some shoddy goods eg. mainly empty boxes marked 'Stationary' & then send Sales Invoices to the Companies asking them to pay you ...
Often 'high street' Companies had such poor control and such poor staff training that they actually sent out cheques every month for stuff they never ordered !
2007-01-16 09:48:10 · answer #4 · answered by Steve B 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No for I could give anyone an invoice does not mean they have to give me money. Wish it did I would be writing them out all day.
2007-01-13 21:41:56 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If it is permitted for in the settlement you signed, that's criminal. regardless of if this were no longer suggested in the settlement, if there are different words that mean that fee will be paid in trouble-free words even as price is gained interior of 60 days ( as an celebration ) - then you honestly haven't any criminal recourse. From the employers POV, it is lower priced - if he won't be able to assemble from the customer, there must be no fee till price is gained.
2016-10-31 01:42:44 · answer #6 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
only if you received the goods
2007-01-13 21:41:23 · answer #7 · answered by man with the golden gun 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
if you signed it - yes
2007-01-13 21:47:31 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
i never knew that.
2007-01-13 21:42:31 · answer #9 · answered by gina 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
is it really?
2007-01-13 21:41:21 · answer #10 · answered by Barry G 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋