Well I would be interested is hearing what one might be....because if you violate the laws of the land then the victim is the person you commit it against and/or the people of the land which put the law in place....so how can it be victimless?
So no
2007-01-13 05:33:04
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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You bet it does!
Prostitution: One person rents the rights to a "property" for a specific period of time, another person purchases that deal ... what is the harm? Who has been victimized (provided that the person selling the rights to the property is not being forced)?
Marijuana sale/use (in it's simplist form (SP): You got weed ... somebody wants to buy it. You set the price, they agree ... what is the problem here? Sounds like a simple sale (OK ... smoking weed ain't good for you ... but neither is drinking alcohol or smoking tobacco! I do both!). Should it be illegal to buy, sell, own, or use anything that might possibly be hazzardous to yourself? I don't think so!
In my county in NY state it's against the law to have a table closer than 6' 7 3/4" inches (actual measurement may be wrong, but it is designated to the 1/4 inch!) to the stage in a bar featuring "clothing optional" (aka nude) entertainment! Would 6 feet 7 and 1/2 harm anyone? That's the job for me! Official measurer of the distance between the first table in a strip club and the stage! Going to work would be fun at last!
Laws are made by people, people are flawed, therefore most laws are flawed! (Note the word MOST! Some laws prohibit activity that does damage another person (ie: murder (the ultimate damage to another person!), rape, assault, etc!)
If all persons involved are adult (ornery and mean does not, under any circumstances, want to promote child abuse) and willing to engage in an activity ... why should government say not good!
Bans, in any form, simply hide the problem! Regulate (but not to the extreme of banning) activities that are not "within the standards of the mainstream of the community" but expect some "non-mainstream" activity!
2007-01-13 14:29:31
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answer #2
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answered by ornery and mean 7
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Crimes are defined by the state that governs you.
Therefore ,an action may be morally correct but still be considered an offence under the state law.
A classic case of victimless crime in britain would be failure to pay for a tv licence.The state and bbc would have you believe that if your share will be met by the other fee payers.Of course this is nonsense propaganda to encourage your neighbours to spy on you.
2007-01-13 05:35:37
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answer #3
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answered by ? 3
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I thought about this and I cant come up with 1 answer that would fit. For every unlawful action there is a consequence you must pay
2007-01-13 05:35:12
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answer #4
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answered by shorty 6
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YES S& M was found to be illegal re the spanner case.
none of these men were victims, yet got proscecuted for GBH.
2007-01-13 08:06:00
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answer #5
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answered by raggyann 3
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government is slowly taking up our freedom bit by potential of bit mutually as we are hitting the snooze alarm. i could agree that I lean in the direction of no, or a case by potential of case. by potential of how, whilst did prostitution grow to be against the regulation. i'm calling the police on my spouse.
2016-12-16 08:00:59
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answer #6
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answered by clumm 3
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The American Government and their armed forces seem to think so, murdering people at will.
2007-01-14 00:17:59
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answer #7
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answered by manforallseasons 4
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No. Something or someone is always violated. The person or loved ones or their property, reputation etc.
2007-01-13 05:35:25
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answer #8
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answered by robert m 7
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If there's not punishment how can there be a crime? If there's no crime, how can there be a victim? However, if you hit a mugger, then there is a victim - the mugger. Guess who commits the crime?
2007-01-13 05:46:21
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answer #9
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answered by Beau Brummell 6
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Absolutely. I am smoking a j right now and I am not harming anyone. (Not even myself you self righteous prigs.)
2007-01-13 06:26:25
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answer #10
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answered by Cracker 4
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