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No because there was a war on. A striker would probably find them selves in prison or the armed services. Striking was considered as action against the state.

2007-01-13 04:02:24 · answer #1 · answered by alec A 3 · 0 1

During the first few months of the war, there were over 900 strikes, almost all of them very short but illegal nonetheless. Despite the provisions of Order 1305 there were very few prosecutions until 1941 since Bevin, anxious to avoid the labour unrest of the First World War, sought to promote conciliation rather than conflict. The number of strikes increased each year until 1944, almost half of them in support of wage demands and the remainder being defensive actions against deteriorations in workplace conditions. Coal and engineering were particularly affected. A strike in the Betteshanger colliery in Kent in 1942 prompted the first mass prosecutions under Order 1305. Three officials of the Betteshanger branch were imprisoned and over a thousand strikers were fined. Such repression and the general 'shoulders to the wheel' approach to industrial production in support of the war effort (strongly backed by the Communist Party after 1941) did not stop strikes. The fact that so many strikes took place in the mining industry was due in the main to the fact that the designation of coal mining as essential war work entailed the direction of selected conscripts to work in the mines ('Bevin boys'). This was very unpopular among regular miners.

2007-01-13 05:12:27 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I have been unable to find and record of such - not only was striking considered unpatriotic, it may also have been illegal. Because of the need for coal, men were actually drafted to work as miners, rather than into the services - called Bevin Boys.

2007-01-13 04:34:53 · answer #3 · answered by rdenig_male 7 · 0 0

Yes there were. Not only that, but the Government had to give other miners petrol coupons to travel to demonstrate in favour of their striking comrades in 1942.

2007-01-13 08:33:53 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

you're precise that Britain declared warfare on germany in september 1940 following Germany's invasion of Poland, whom Britain had promised to guard from invasion. France also declared warfare and for a lengthy time period it changed into Britain and France vs germany. Then with information from summer season 1940 France had surrendered and Germany managed basically about all of Europe. The British Empire (Britain alongside with Australia, Canada, India etc) stood on my own scuffling with hostile to Germany. Then in summer season 1941 germany invaded the U.S. (Russia). This presented the U.S. into the conflict, which changed into substantial because the U.S. had the most important land military contained in the international. Arguably it changed into this decision to invade the U.S. which set Germany on the direction to dropping the warfare Then in December 1941 Japan attacked Pearl Harbour. us of a declared warfare on Japan, and Germany as Japan's best chum declared warfare on us of a. both aspects from then on stood as following: The British Empire, the U.S. (Russia) and us of a vs Germany, Japan and Italy. operating mutually, the three tremendous countries managed to defeat italy in 1944, then flow on to rigidity the Germans to offer up in 1945

2016-12-02 05:17:26 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

no that was world war 2

2007-01-13 03:59:20 · answer #6 · answered by caz1977 3 · 0 1

I don't think so. I think people were more concerned with fighting the war.

2007-01-13 03:59:56 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

No (strikes cause disruption, so none occurred).

2007-01-13 04:02:27 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Yes. They were illegal too.

2007-01-13 05:10:03 · answer #9 · answered by Nickname 5 · 1 0

no

2007-01-13 05:24:41 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

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