Wasn't it weird that King George 1 and 2 of Britain doesn't speak English?

Question

Why

Boston Bluefish, sir winston churchill wrote this in one of the books published by his grandson.

Devan and Jack, thanks!!

rockandro... ' The Great Republic - A history of America' by Sir Winston Churchill, edited by Winston S. Churchill, pg 55.

'Both George I and Gerorge II were aliens in language, outlook, upbringing, and sympathy. their court was predominantly Germans..'

this is the brilliant source i am raising my query upon, dude.

oh tyr now i know why the book mention such, as u mention 'and right now the English royal family but are of german decent.'

Answer 1

Hi Jason,

You're not looking at this from a European point of view. From an Asian view it must seem very odd. In Asia, social, racial and linguistic uniformity of society is much the norm. But not in European History.

European history is replete with examples of individuals who ruled nations to which they were alien.

Mary Queen of Scots was raised in France, and spoke virtually no English. Yet she became Queen of Scotland.

The Frenchman, Jean Baptiste Bernadotte became King of Sweden, yet never spoke a word of Swedish.

Catherine the Great was German, yet ruled Russia, and spoke only German or French at Court.

There are many, many other examples I could give.

George I became King because he was the closest Protestant relative to Queen Anne; and Parliament was determined that another Catholic was NOT going to sit on the throne. That he was German was less important.

As I say, there is a fundamental difference in the way Europeans see things about their royals. Can you imagine the scandal that would erupt in Japan if the Crown Prince were to mary a non-Japanese woman? Asians regard racial, social and linguistic uniformity as absolutely non-negitiable. But in Europe, the royals were historically thought of as a class unto themselves. Thus when a royal of one country went to another it wasn't considered that much of a big deal.

For many centuries, the royal houses of Europe intermarried; and thus, any particular nationality was less significant. In a very real sense, European royalty became "one big family." For example, during WW I, Britain and Germany were mortal enemies, and yet, King George of Britain, and Kaiser Wilhelm of Germany were first cousins. Hope this answer helps.

Cheers, mate.

Answer 2

well after 1066 (the Battle of Hastings) there havent been any real english kings. since the english, or Harold the second lost to Duke William of Normandy, the french. the throne and country had major french influnces. non of the "English" lore is english its actually french, like the legend of King Arthur and the knights of the round table. and right now the English royal family but are of german decent.

Answer 3

Well, I don't know a lot about the royal families, but I know that one MUST be of royal blood to hold the throne. So, if a king or queen dies without children, the title must go to someone with royal blood--even if it means someone outside the country. James I of England was actually Scottish; Queen Elizabeth had died without children, so he was next in line.

So maybe that's the reason King George didn't speak English; maybe they had to bring him in from another country.

Really, though, I'm not sure about this. That would just be my guess.

Answer 4

R/T I even have seen lots of of those - - - is it any ask your self that the yankee college little ones can not learn. in the event that they proceed to hearken to King George - they never will! thank you returned for the snort! CJ

Answer 5

Y E S,it would be and where is the source of
this brilliant information????

Answer 6

I think you are mistaken,,,I don't recall an historical reference of that kind.