2007-01-12 13:55:19 · 11 answers · asked by askandanswer 3 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
In the Gregorian calendar, which is used in the Western world, there is no year 0. 1 BC followed by 1 AD.
2007-01-12 13:58:51 · answer #1 · answered by Joy M 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The year immediately following 1BC is AD1 (BC = Before Chrsit; AD = Anno Domini [in the Year of OUR LORD]). The clerics responsible for our dating system, did not think about a Year 0 (or so it seems!) The first calendar to be used with BC & AD was the Julian Calendar, retained fron the days of the Roman Empire. In the 1600s, Pope Gregory authorized a revised Calendar, because the old one was several days off from the actual time of year (also, he wanted to emphasize the birth of CHRIST JESUS!) The Calendar that resulted & we use today, throughout most of the world, is called the Gregorian Calendar.
2007-01-12 14:09:53 · answer #2 · answered by chris5522a 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
How can you have a year 0? Since 0 means nothing, then would that be the year we did nothing, just froze in time for a year? No, the Gregorian calendar is not like simple math. We cannot have a year 0, just like we can't have a year of nothingness. It was impossible to concieve by Gregory, just as it is impossible to concieve now. Thus it would sometimes be hard to figure out the number of years between 23 B.C. and 7 A.D. It is 29 years and not 30.
2007-01-13 03:19:55 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The 12 months of the delivery is estimated, and now time-honored to be probable incorrect. yet evaluate this. The 12 months a million BC, exchange into the 12 months before the delivery of Christ. ordinary. Then Christ exchange into born - so initiate of the calendar. the 1st 12 months of his lifestyles exchange into for this reason a million advert, i.e. his first 12 months. He can not have an age of 0. Er....? Bit like what occurs between 23:fifty 9 hours and 00:01 in the defense force?
2016-12-16 03:21:59 · answer #4 · answered by lacy 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
We went right from 1 BC to 1 AD. No year zero.
2007-01-12 14:00:53 · answer #5 · answered by sargon 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1! There is no year 0 - a fact which has caused a lot of minor problems since then - e.g. that the year 100 is actually the 1st century, while 101 is the 2nd century...and 2000 is the 2nd millennium after Christ, while 2001 is the beginning of the new millennium...
2007-01-12 14:03:42 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
1.
2007-01-12 14:00:37 · answer #7 · answered by Juan 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1. There was no year zero. So the first dated events occured in the year one (0001) A.D.
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2007-01-12 14:37:25 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, aside from there being no "year zero," all you have to do is look back to how you start counting. You start counting at "1" and go forth, not "zero".
2007-01-12 15:05:07 · answer #9 · answered by Hotwad 980 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Its really 0, but this date is actually debatable by scholars.
2007-01-12 14:04:07 · answer #10 · answered by tiger 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋