2007-01-12 07:10:04 · 17 answers · asked by PHOEBE 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Other - Cultures & Groups
Yes. They can claim HISPANIC quite validly or not claim it or half claim it.
2007-01-12 07:32:22 · answer #1 · answered by Lotus Phoenix 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, Hispanic refers to the global area of Hispania - central America. If the child's father is Spanish then the child is considered Spanish.
2007-01-12 15:18:43 · answer #2 · answered by I_Love_Life! 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Spanish, Hispanic Latino. There are a lot of degrees when you start calculating and I guess now days the closeness genetically would be more important. I said I was Heinz 57 the last time I was asked.
2007-01-12 15:22:03 · answer #3 · answered by lyyman 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It seems stupid to me, but here's how the "Race Issue" is looked at by the majority of Americans... if the person has 1% of anything, they're considered that race... Native Americans only have to be 1/2%, to get special Federal assistance for college! Fair? Nope! I have a son, who looks at it in a great way; when his cousins where telling him he was black, he kept saying no... then they demanded an explanation, and he said; Mom's Black, Dad's White, that makes me Tan!
2007-01-12 15:21:29 · answer #4 · answered by Mark MacIver 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Half Spanish
2007-01-12 15:17:46 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
1/2
2007-01-12 15:17:41 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋
Yes the child is considered Hispanic. Like when white and black mixes, they are instantly considered black. If any parent of the child is black and the other parent is of another race, they are instantly called colored/black/biracial(that is society talking not me)
2007-01-12 15:17:24 · answer #7 · answered by Naomi B 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Basically yes. Caucasian almost always refers to no Latin descent. (Or so that's what the boxes on forms beside the race/ethnicity say).
2007-01-12 15:14:29 · answer #8 · answered by Jennifer M 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I would consider the child mixed race.
2007-01-12 15:18:09 · answer #9 · answered by vaderismydog2006 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
No,
But skin tone does dominate on the y chromizone.
So you have a white woman and a black man, the baby will be darker complection.
And a white man and Black woman, the complextion will be whiter.
But you get heratige from BOTH sides.
Plus a baby isn't in their DAD'S belly for nine months are they?
2007-01-12 15:15:27 · answer #10 · answered by danksprite420 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋