I need to solve this criminal case for my criminology class. It is about A 65 year old man who committed murder. (The murder was not because of jealouse)
The story is as follow:The old man was servant of a woman about 43. The man was her servant since she was a little child and he loved the woman like his own daughter. On summer that they were on countryside, the woman’s son invites his friend to stay with them. The woman was very kind to his son’s friend, but the old man did not like the boy and was unhappy about woman kindness to him. One day after summer, the old man go shopping. While he was shopping he saw the young man and asked him why he did not come to their house any more. The young man answered that he could not come, but he is still in touch with the lady. And show the old man, a letter, he became so angry that he kill the young man with the hammer he has bought.Every body said the old man was gentle, and reasonable. So what was wrong with him_
2007-01-12 06:54:38 · 6 answers · asked by hal1455tn 1 in Social Science ➔ Psychology
Paranoia or some form of dementia make most sense to me. Either could cause him to act in an unpredictable manner.
2007-01-12 06:59:58 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
I believe this is a simple case of a crime of passion. The old man could very well have had loving feelings. He may have felt intimidated by the younger man, thinking in terms of her "cheating" on him with the younger man. There are NUMEROUS cases where the crime was a crime of passion due to infidelity. The old man may have simply been in love with the woman or created some sort of fantasy life where they were together.
2007-01-12 06:59:51 · answer #2 · answered by irin997 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why is it not a protective jealousy (like a parental feeling)? Seems to solve the criminal case, you've got to ignore other people's "rule-outs" and consider all the facts in basing your conclusions. As it is said: it's usually the most obvious thing. The story is written to justify jealousy.
Possible psych illness that may be considered - but I strongly doubt - is post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Maybe consider dementia as it has an element of violence associated with mental impairment as we age. It wouldn't be bipolar because his decades of constant level-headedness and lack of noted mood-swings.
2007-01-12 07:02:54 · answer #3 · answered by Greywolf 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
they were planning to kill the old man so he got there first? the friend felt guilty so showed him the letter he then killed him who knows what happend next? they wanted the friend to kill him but he couldnt so showed him the letter of what they wanted him to do. because he felt bad ohh thats it i cant think no more lol.
2007-01-12 07:06:32 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you're taking criminology, you should be trying to solve your own problem, not running to the internet!
2007-01-12 07:01:30 · answer #5 · answered by buster 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it doesnt really sound like he had a psychological illness, but that he went temporarily insane due to what was in that letter,,
2007-01-12 06:59:05 · answer #6 · answered by dlin333 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋