2007-01-12 05:27:31 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
lol thats funny
2007-01-12 05:31:31 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
I doubt it. The point of washing a kids mouth out with soap for cussing is b/c the soap tastes bad and the kid wouldn't do it for fear of having it done again. Having his hands washed is not much of a punishment for cusses using sign language. I think that she would have to wash his mouth out even though he used his hands to get the point across, or maybe slap his hands?
2007-01-12 13:37:20 · answer #2 · answered by deadzed 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
deadzed gave a good answer. However, I think there is more to be considered. A deaf person would use sign language to communicate just as a mute person might, as you suggest. If you really wish to punish such a person for such communication, AND I DON'T RECCOMMEND THIS BECAUSE I TRULY THINK IT WOULD BE HIGHLY ABUSIVE, handcuff them, and then tape their hands together palm to palm. That, I'm sure, would be an extremely frightful and abusive situation to be locked out of any chance of reasonable communication.
2007-01-12 14:12:29 · answer #3 · answered by G A 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
how could a mute person verbally accost a piece of lumber? Why would his mother wash his hands for doing so? Because he is not being true to himself? Define your terms.
2007-01-12 13:30:00 · answer #4 · answered by johnmfsample 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hmm...I dunno. Washing his hands wouldn't do much good because he should be washing his hands on a daily basis, anyway...No punishment there!
2007-01-12 13:32:56 · answer #5 · answered by djpetramw 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
CAN HE HEAR HIMSELF THINK TOO?
2007-01-12 13:31:10 · answer #6 · answered by walter z 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no
2007-01-12 13:29:32 · answer #7 · answered by bbb 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋