Our tenant is claiming that there is a Texas law that says a landlord must give a tenant a 30 day grace period before we may ask for rent that is past due. His rent is due on the 1st of the month and we asked on the 12th of the month. Help please.
2007-01-12 01:50:38 · 4 answers · asked by footprintsrmy 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Renting & Real Estate
LOL I dont think so but nice try on his part.
Go to this link and go to title 8.
2007-01-12 02:01:33 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
E.g. if rent is due on the 1st month it can be considered past due or late if received after the 3-5 (note: typically the lease prescribes this) day of the month at which time the landlord must make a written notice (3-Day Notice) requesting the rent in arrears to be paid within 3 days. If the tenant fails to comply then the landlord files for an eviction notice which can take up to 30 days......so if per lease the rent is past due then you must drop a 3-day notice to pay rent or quit and if they fail to comply move for eviction.....
2007-01-12 10:28:11 · answer #2 · answered by boston857 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No!!! You do not have to give a grace period. My tenants rents are due on the 1st and I choose to give them until the 5th to pay there rent. I have other landlord friends who's rents are due on the 1st and the tenants are late on the 2nd with a healthy late fee.
If your lease with this tenant does not specify a late fee and due date do this ASAP and have them sign it. If the tenant does not pay the rent by that date you send them a 3 day pay or vacate notice along with the late fee and any other fee's you have in writing. If the resident does not pay by this time you start your eviction and so on... I hope this gets in started in the right direction and Good Luck!!!
2007-01-12 16:55:39 · answer #3 · answered by The Landlord 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would not give it. Pay or get you butt out. If in fact it is some kind of law, I would sell the rent house to a liberal.
2007-01-12 09:55:14 · answer #4 · answered by scallywag 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋