if they left a will which says that that property belongs only to him and always will then u have no rights for that. if they didn't leave any will and u have no prenuptial agreement - yes, u own 50% of everything he owns
2007-01-11 22:48:33
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answer #1
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answered by jacky 6
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It all depends on the laws of your state. This is a pretty complicated area, actually, and the services of an experienced family law attorney should be hired. The reason it is complicated is that the answer really is fact specific. First of all it depends upon whether or not the property was inherited by the son, purchased by the son, gifted by the parents to son and his wife, etc. Second of all it depends upon how the property was used by son and wife. Did he keep it in his name only and never used any money to improve it or use any of his time to manage it? Was it anticipated to be a retirement property for son and wife? Did they jointly make decisions about it and treat it as a marital asset? Did he own it only for a short time at the end of the marriage or did he own it before the marriage or did he acquire it during the marriage.
The answer to each question above changes the result. As you can see, very fact specific and many more details needed before anyone could give you a correct answer.
Good luck.
2007-01-12 00:23:54
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answer #2
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answered by CV 3
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The true answer depends upon various other facts that we don't have?
Were you married when you inherited? Was it left only to you? Do you and wife or have you and wife ever lived in the house? Are you paying your current marital obligations with rent from the house?
The basic outline is. If you have never co-mingled the asset into the marriage assets then no, you would not have to give legal rights to wife. If you have co-mingled it into the marriage assets then yes, she has a right to 1/2.
The old saying goes...If you don't want your spouse to have 1/2 of what you have keep it secret! Oops!! I mean separate. The saying goes exactly as worded above.
2007-01-11 22:55:06
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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On the face of it, yes. When you get married all assets owned by either partner become "marital assets" which means they are in the pot for distribution if the couple divorce.
The exception is with short childless marriages, where the UK courts will now look at whether the assets were the product of the marriage - i.e. built up as a joint endeavour. If he already had the house then the wife may not get half of it on divorce
2007-01-11 23:47:41
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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If you live in the U.S., generally speaking, anything acquired by inheritance during a marriage or anything owed prior to the marriage (you didn’t say when you inherited it) is considered separate property as long you kept it separate (ie didn’t add the spouse’s name on the deed, etc).
However, any increase in value during the marriage can be considered martial property, so, in that situation the spouse could be entitled to 50% of the increased value. For example, if the house was worth $100,000 and is now worth $150,000, the spouse could be entitled to $25,000 (half of the increased value of $50,000).
Talk to a local attorney.
2007-01-12 00:32:13
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answer #5
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answered by kp 7
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Unless you have a prenuptial agreement that states you keep what you bring into the marriage, the wife is entitled to half of any property that the partner owns.
2007-01-11 22:49:08
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answer #6
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answered by midnight_lady 2
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Don't let all these people give you false hope. Usually inherited property is not considered community property. That means you are not entitled to ownership of his inheritence and vice versa. However, you need to check into the State Laws. Should be easy to find on the internet.
2007-01-11 23:29:19
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answer #7
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answered by Wondrin Dude 3
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If you are in the UK then yes she does. If the property is yours and you are legally married then it is also hers. Doesn't matter what your parents will may have said, wish it did, would make things so much easier for me and my husband too.
2007-01-12 01:35:17
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answer #8
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answered by ffiondove 4
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its urs lol whatever is his is yours, if ur married u are entitled to half and not married im still sure u still get a % of it, seek legal advice, some good sites on internet to finding questions.
i do know of a women my mum knows was married to a guy and his parents left him the house money ect, and when they split up she got quite alot if it.
look into straight away
2007-01-11 22:55:42
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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No. He does not have to share anything he owned before marriage. After marriage, it is usually 50/50.
2007-01-11 22:50:12
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answer #10
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answered by NeNe 3
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