2007-01-11 18:40:50 · 9 answers · asked by singlensullen 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Not necessarily... How can we find out?... Use the "vertical test"
First, graph y=f(x). If you can draw a vertical line through more than one point through your graph, the vertical test fails. Otherwise, it passes.
Then graph x=f(y). Repeat the test.
If the Vertical Test passes on both scenarios, then the answer to your original question is YES. Otherwise, the answer is NO.
Simple, right?
2007-01-11 19:32:47 · answer #1 · answered by shoebockz2 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It can be, but not necessarily.
The definition of a function is an algorithm that only can produce a single result from a parameter set. It is also possible for the function result to be undefined.
2007-01-11 19:08:54 · answer #2 · answered by J C 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i would say if the correlation is an absolute one, then yes, they are used interchangeably. otherwise, x may not be a function of y even though y is a function of x.
2007-01-11 18:53:19 · answer #3 · answered by A Wholesome Heart Loves C F 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes :
Function means relationship.
If y is dependent on x, then x is linked to y.
The exemple of y=x^2 means that x=sqrt(y)
2007-01-11 18:51:26 · answer #4 · answered by sedfr 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Not necessarily. For example, this is not true for y = x^2
2007-01-11 18:44:43 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
No..
Andy is son of Brett, doen not mean Brett is son of Andy !
2007-01-11 18:48:48 · answer #6 · answered by Bernard 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sometimes, but not always.
2007-01-11 18:49:29 · answer #7 · answered by Northstar 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
no, not possible
2007-01-11 18:49:30 · answer #8 · answered by Curiosity 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
no, never.
2007-01-11 18:46:45 · answer #9 · answered by Dashes 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋