Is there any prime number whose square root is an integer?
2007-01-11 17:20:30 · 15 answers · asked by CookFrNW 3 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
okay so a prime number is a number who's factors are only 1 and itself. and you want to find a number like that which has a square root...
which means that a number times itself is going to give you your number. but that means that there needs to be another factor besides for just 1 and itself.
unless the number is 1.
(but i'm not sure that 1 is considered prime... ut if it is then 1 is your answer)
2007-01-11 17:25:16 · answer #1 · answered by brookbabe90 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1
2007-01-12 01:44:25 · answer #2 · answered by bbillnextech 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1
â1=1
2007-01-12 01:49:24 · answer #3 · answered by yupchagee 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
off the top of my head..Isn't an "integer" a whole number? If it is, then the answer to your question is NO. To be prime it would have to be divisible only by 1 and itself. A number times itself is said to be the square root of the product of the equation...therefore, I don't see how a number could be prime, whole, and a square root. Of course, this is if an "integer" has to be a whole number.
2007-01-12 01:30:42 · answer #4 · answered by maxiesmom 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1 maybe
if the number 1 is prime, then it's square root is an integer. 1..
if it isn't, then there are no prime numbers that have an integral square root.
so, is 1 prime or not? according to some of you yes. others no. Turns out, like astronomers and pluto, some mathematicians got together and demoted 1.
in the 19th century, 1 was prime. now it isn't...
see here
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prime_numbers
2007-01-12 01:30:33 · answer #5 · answered by Dr W 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the number had a square root that was an integer, then it wouldn't be considered a prime number.
2007-01-12 01:27:47 · answer #6 · answered by athleticsfan12 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1 is the only number. Aside from the number 1 the definition of prime is that it will only result in an integer when divided by 1 and itself. 1 is debated to be prime...see source.
2007-01-12 01:27:04 · answer #7 · answered by clearlyalienboy 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, by definition no. If a number had an integral square root, that square root would be a factor. Therefore the number would not be prime.
2007-01-12 01:38:28 · answer #8 · answered by Northstar 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
2
2007-01-12 01:23:18 · answer #9 · answered by Beautiful had a BOY on 3.7.09!!! 3 · 1⤊ 3⤋
No, because that would mean it has a factor other than 1 and itself.
If anyone says yes and uses 1 as an example, this is incorrect. 1 is neither a composite nor prime number.
2007-01-12 01:23:45 · answer #10 · answered by smawtadanyew 2 · 2⤊ 1⤋