It's cos(x)
4,728,084 is divisible by four.
Let f(x)=cox(x)
f'=-sin(x)
f''=-cos(x)
f'''=sin(x)
f''''=cos(x)
So - the 4th, 8th, 12th, etc. derivatives are all cos(x).
2007-01-11 14:19:57
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answer #1
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answered by evaniax 3
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That's easy,
cosx
Every 4th derivative of cosx is itself cosx. Since 4,782,084 is a multiple of 4...
2007-01-11 14:17:36
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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1st derivative of cos x is -sen x,
2nd derivative of cos x is -cos x,
3rd derivative of cos x is sin x,
4th derivative of cos x is cos x, the original function
which means that 4th, 8th,12th, 16th, ..... etc.derivatives of cos x will be cos x. As 4,782084 is divisible by 4, so the desired derivative will be cos x.
2007-01-11 14:32:23
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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As I recall, all even numbered derivatives of cosine are cosine also (odd ones are sine). Since that number is an even derivative the answer must be cos x.
2007-01-11 14:12:41
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answer #4
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answered by Rich Z 7
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f'(x)=cosx-sinx f''(x)= -sinx-cosx because the spinoff of sinx = cosx and the spinoff of cosx= -sinx by technique of definition. set the equations =0 to discover your serious factors, increasing/lowering, concave up/concave down.
2016-11-23 13:11:05
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answer #5
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answered by scheiber 4
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i can't find my book on derivatives so im doing this from head.
when you derive cosine it becomes sine and changes sign (+/-)
but when you derive sine it becomes cosine with no sign change so off the top of my head.
since 4,782,084 evenly divides by 4 i guess the answer is cos(x)
as in no changes.
2007-01-11 14:17:46
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answer #6
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answered by Gau Wolfram Gunsche 1
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orig: cos
1st -sin
2 -cos
3 sin
4 cos
5 -sin
6 -cos
7 sin
8 cos
You return to cosx every fourth time you take a derivative.
4,782,084 divides evenly by four, so the 4,782,084th derivative is cos(x)
2007-01-11 14:15:59
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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cosx.
every 4th derivative of cosx is cosx (every 2nd is -cosx)
2007-01-11 14:13:13
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answer #8
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answered by Emily 3
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It's cos x because every 4th derivative of cos x is cos x.
2007-01-11 14:17:42
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answer #9
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answered by steiner1745 7
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let pi represent the usual mathematical pie (know what i mean?)
then when you differentiate cosx n times you will get cos(x+n(pi)/2).
Therefore, in your case n=4,782,084. Pluck that number in and viola.
2007-01-11 14:16:07
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answer #10
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answered by bonzion 1
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