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2007-01-11 14:08:57 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

12 answers

It's cos(x)
4,728,084 is divisible by four.
Let f(x)=cox(x)
f'=-sin(x)
f''=-cos(x)
f'''=sin(x)
f''''=cos(x)

So - the 4th, 8th, 12th, etc. derivatives are all cos(x).

2007-01-11 14:19:57 · answer #1 · answered by evaniax 3 · 0 0

That's easy,
cosx
Every 4th derivative of cosx is itself cosx. Since 4,782,084 is a multiple of 4...

2007-01-11 14:17:36 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

1st derivative of cos x is -sen x,
2nd derivative of cos x is -cos x,
3rd derivative of cos x is sin x,
4th derivative of cos x is cos x, the original function
which means that 4th, 8th,12th, 16th, ..... etc.derivatives of cos x will be cos x. As 4,782084 is divisible by 4, so the desired derivative will be cos x.

2007-01-11 14:32:23 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

As I recall, all even numbered derivatives of cosine are cosine also (odd ones are sine). Since that number is an even derivative the answer must be cos x.

2007-01-11 14:12:41 · answer #4 · answered by Rich Z 7 · 0 1

f'(x)=cosx-sinx f''(x)= -sinx-cosx because the spinoff of sinx = cosx and the spinoff of cosx= -sinx by technique of definition. set the equations =0 to discover your serious factors, increasing/lowering, concave up/concave down.

2016-11-23 13:11:05 · answer #5 · answered by scheiber 4 · 0 0

i can't find my book on derivatives so im doing this from head.
when you derive cosine it becomes sine and changes sign (+/-)
but when you derive sine it becomes cosine with no sign change so off the top of my head.
since 4,782,084 evenly divides by 4 i guess the answer is cos(x)
as in no changes.

2007-01-11 14:17:46 · answer #6 · answered by Gau Wolfram Gunsche 1 · 0 0

orig: cos
1st -sin
2 -cos
3 sin
4 cos
5 -sin
6 -cos
7 sin
8 cos


You return to cosx every fourth time you take a derivative.
4,782,084 divides evenly by four, so the 4,782,084th derivative is cos(x)

2007-01-11 14:15:59 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

cosx.
every 4th derivative of cosx is cosx (every 2nd is -cosx)

2007-01-11 14:13:13 · answer #8 · answered by Emily 3 · 2 0

It's cos x because every 4th derivative of cos x is cos x.

2007-01-11 14:17:42 · answer #9 · answered by steiner1745 7 · 0 0

let pi represent the usual mathematical pie (know what i mean?)

then when you differentiate cosx n times you will get cos(x+n(pi)/2).
Therefore, in your case n=4,782,084. Pluck that number in and viola.

2007-01-11 14:16:07 · answer #10 · answered by bonzion 1 · 0 3

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