2007-01-11 13:21:51 · 4 answers · asked by gotta know 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Nope. It sounds like you are thinking of "adverse possession". That takes 7 years, you have to pay the taxes, live there as if it is yours, and the real owner has to fail to pay the taxes. That's the simple answer without ne getting too complex.
Just because the person lives rent free doesn't mean the true owner is not showing or claiming and ownership interest in the property.
2007-01-11 13:25:59 · answer #1 · answered by kathylouisehall 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
2
2016-07-18 19:05:25 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Rent To Own Homes : http://RentToOwnHome.uzaev.com/?QwYr
2016-07-13 02:20:35 · answer #3 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. You are asking about what is called "adverse possession." You can gain title by adverse possession, but it has a number of requirements, including having paid the property tax on the property, and you have probably not met all the requirements.
2007-01-11 13:24:55 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not that I know of. If there is taxes that are due on it and you pay them then it will become yours if the owner does not pay you. Ask your local courthouse they maybe be able to tell you.
2007-01-11 13:26:11 · answer #5 · answered by midnight_23_98 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋