I am not talking about a system in which the government owns corporations and distributes the earning equally, I am talking about the people themselves, all privately owning equal amounts of stock of corporations (legally unable to trade the stock however, because it would result in unequal ownership of stock).
2007-01-11
12:21:12
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3 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Politics & Government
➔ Government
To Rik V: I did not mention "ownership of everything", I was talking about ownership of stock. There was no stock market back in the days of the pilgrams so it could not have been a "complete failure". You are confusing two completey different things. Owning stock is not at all the same as doing labor. Your analogy might make sense if we were idiscussing what would happen is a town decided to pay all workers the same price for unequal types of work, not about the stock market. Sorry, try again.
2007-01-11
13:03:41 ·
update #1