cuz according to the dictionary there's no such thing, but i seem to hear people pronouncing these words differently.
2007-01-11 11:38:53 · 6 answers · asked by Craneo l 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
There is no difference today but there was 800 years or so ago. All the "gh" words had the "gh" sounded as a velar fricative - the same sound as the German "ch" or the Spanish "x". The velar fricative has long gone from English for the most part and "write" and "right" are homonyms.
There are still a few areas in Scotland where velar fricatives are used in English as they are a phoneme in Scots Gaelic. You could hear "right" pronounced "richt".
2007-01-11 12:55:28 · answer #1 · answered by tentofield 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Negative.
The only difference would be in a person's own accent that they made up. They would probably stress different parts of the word.
2007-01-11 11:49:33 · answer #2 · answered by Alex F 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not in American English.
2007-01-11 11:47:08 · answer #3 · answered by Blessed 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
actually by right there isn't any difference. but it all depends on how u pronounce.are u a kid or wat?..well adults to try to ask this only if the're dumb
2007-01-11 11:48:34 · answer #4 · answered by danzelolic 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends on where you are from but technicallly they are the same, they are just homonymes
2007-01-11 11:47:36 · answer #5 · answered by HDsnowlover 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope. They are homonyms.
2007-01-11 11:42:33 · answer #6 · answered by morgbert 1 · 2⤊ 0⤋