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"If I remember WWII history correctly, America is at first hesitant to join the war. Franch and Britain embarked on a persuasive propaganda aimed at America for it to join the war. It was only when the Maginot Line (toward Franch) was breached by Germany's blitzkrieg (mechanized attack) that America realized that a war vs. Germany is imminent so it declared war. It did not declare war against Russia because that nation is also being invaded by Germany and Russians are busy fighting the Germans."

Your history is a little out, although not by much.

Here's my version:
Germany invades Czechoslovakia
Britain signs Mutual Assistance treaty with Poland
Germany invades Poland
Britain, France, New Zealand and Australia declare war on Germany
United States proclaims neutrality
Russia invades Poland (to take some territory to protect their country) and country divided between Germany and Russia
Russia invades Finland
Germany invades Denmark and Norway
Germany invades Belgium, Luxembourg, Holland and France
Italy declares war on Britain
13 months later...
Germany invades Russia and Russia becomes British ally
Six months later
Japan enters the war by attacking Britain, US and Dutch colonies simultaneously
US enters the war
etc etc etc

Now to the question itself...

The build up between Britain and Germany prior to 1939 made war almost inevitable. Germany breached treaty after treaty after treaty and at some point they had to be stood up to. Britain signed a treaty with Poland to tell Germany that they'd grown enough and any more would mean war. So when Germany entered Poland, war with Germany began. Russia at that time was a German ally of sorts and split the country with Germany. However they were not the British target.

At that time France had a treaty with Russia and for Britain to declare war against Russia, would damage the relationship with France, which at that time was needed. That is why Britain did not declare war on Russia in 1939.

I assume your question actually relates to the end of the war. I'm afraid my knowledge of that period is less solid, so I will make assumptions...

When Germany fell, the British and Americans had to move on to the Pacific and focus on the Japanese. To declare war on Russia at this point would have been a distraction and a political disaster - this is an ally they had spent a lot of lives supporting. So it was left alone.

2007-01-11 12:15:45 · answer #1 · answered by The Truth 3 · 3 0

Agree with Rob M, the west defeated the nazis only for the soviets to silently take over poland and the rest of eastern europe then build a war dividing much of germany so separating the west from the east and communism from capitalism in a broad sense. If the west had declared war on stalin/russia for example the war might have been won against the russians weather permitting because the russian army wasn't in such a great shape, churchill was also a bit anxious with regards to the americans cosying up to stalin, but no, war was only with the germans and when it was won, history abruptly stopped there whilst most of europe was still in a mess.

2007-01-12 04:14:59 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Excellent Question. I've often wondered why WWII was fought only to let Russia take the Same Eastern countries without a shot
that Germany was driven from. The same Poland an Ally was sacrificed to Russia by Churchill for one after the war. Its a wonder Poland trusts anybody after being occupied by Nazis and Communists and sold out by the West.

2007-01-11 21:17:42 · answer #3 · answered by robert m 7 · 1 0

If I remember WWII history correctly, America is at first hesitant to join the war. Franch and Britain embarked on a persuasive propaganda aimed at America for it to join the war. It was only when the Maginot Line (toward Franch) was breached by Germany's blitzkrieg (mechanized attack) that America realized that a war vs. Germany is imminent so it declared war. It did not declare war against Russia because that nation is also being invaded by Germany and Russians are busy fighting the Germans.

2007-01-11 19:36:42 · answer #4 · answered by Willie Boy 5 · 0 0

did russia invade poland or do you mean after the war?
russia were making sure thay wouldnt attacked by nazis through poland
because hitler was told if he attacks poland we will declare war and germany had already invaded 1/2 a dozen countries
but the russians werent our fight after the war that was only american conspirisy

2007-01-12 12:50:17 · answer #5 · answered by liam0_m 5 · 0 0

A dramatic demonstration of of the consequence of playing hooky during history class. Is history taught in our schools anymore? WW2 changed the course of human history and is tremendously important to current events. Imagined comic book conspiracies and alterior motives do not answer the question or illuminate anyones understanding.

There was no "build up" between the U.K. and Germany. Nevil Chamberlain was against any "provocation" caused by any British effort to defend itself. Sound familiar?

The USSR wasn't given free reign in eastern Europe, they were given the first crack at the Nazis because the lost 20 MILLION PEOPLE, 8 million in the death camps, and had to wait 3 years for the allies to land and take some of the heat off them.

The Maginot line was irrelevent. Germany delcalred war on us, after Perl Harbor, because Hitler had no choice. The axis treaty required it, and he never forgave Japan for it. He did not sing their praises. Germany wasn't ready to fight the US. It was US assistance the allowed the USSR to rebuild their forces in the east before driving the Nazis back into Germany. They couldn't have done it without us.

Churchill didn't sell out anyone. His was the loudest voice against Soviet expansion. He coined the phrase "Iron curtain". There was no conspiracy, people were tired of war and noone wanted to see millions more die to make a point to Stalin. We made a Frankenstein out of a smaller Frankenstein and we had to live with it. Noone expected treasonist scientist in the US to GIVE atomic secrets to the Soviets in order to "level the playing field".

2007-01-12 04:22:31 · answer #6 · answered by stanhold 2 · 1 0

Because it was Germany who invaded Poland without the help of her allies in the 'axis' and because Germany was the main aggressor in Europe.

2007-01-11 20:08:04 · answer #7 · answered by Beau Brummell 6 · 0 0

because Germany invaded and occupied Poland then invaded Russia, Russia retreated back into Russia, as far back as Moscow, stretching the German lines so supply was extremely difficult for the Germans. the Russians then fought the Germans back to Germany, however, Poland is in the way so inevitably they invaded but also left to get to Berlin, and they were the first to arrive and Hitler promptly did himself in!

2007-01-11 19:29:22 · answer #8 · answered by solarizedmonkeyman 2 · 0 2

Russia invaded Poland cos they were a bit worried about the Nazi tanks steaming towards their borders.

2007-01-11 19:26:45 · answer #9 · answered by Yeti 3 · 0 0

We didn't declare war on Germany. When the Japanese bombed Pearl Harbor, we declared war on them (Japan). Hitler was allied with the Japanese, strange but true, and declared war on the United States so we would have to fight a war on two fronts. I even heard from one of my professors in college that when news reached Berlin about Pearl Harbor, Hitler ran up and down the halls of his residence proclaiming the Japanese as honorary Aryans. More proof that he was a complete and utter nutbar.

2007-01-11 20:28:10 · answer #10 · answered by docketclerkguy 2 · 2 0

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