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2007-01-11 09:11:22 · 7 answers · asked by stardust6547 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

7 answers

It is false; if it were true, then that would imply sine is an even function. But it's not; sine is an odd function.

Also, sin(-pi/3) can also be written as sin (-pi/3 + 2pi), since you obtain the same point on the unit circle by going one revolution. sin(-pi/3 + 2pi) = sin(-pi/3 + 6pi/3) = sin(5pi/3)

sin(5pi/3) = -sqrt(3)/2, and
sin(pi/3) = sqrt(3)/2

As you can see, they're not equal.

2007-01-11 09:15:52 · answer #1 · answered by Puggy 7 · 3 0

It's false: sin(-pi/3) = -sin(pi/3).
Expand sin(0 - pi/3) = sin 0 cos pi/3 - cos 0 sin pi/3.
Now sin 0 = 0 and cos 0 =1 and so you get -sin(pi/3).

2007-01-11 09:16:59 · answer #2 · answered by steiner1745 7 · 0 0

no it's false, the sine fuction is Odd, not even, hence Sin(- anything) = - Sin(anything)....therefore, sin(-pi/3) = - sin(pi/3)

2007-01-11 09:17:36 · answer #3 · answered by Psycho 3 · 0 0

In general sin(-x) = -sin(x)
So the statement is false.

2007-01-11 09:27:56 · answer #4 · answered by ironduke8159 7 · 0 0

sin(pi/3) is equal to sqrroot(3)/2
sin( -pi/3) is equal to negative sqrroot(3)/2

so the answer is false

hope this helps

2007-01-11 09:19:14 · answer #5 · answered by jr52889 3 · 0 0

False
sin(-π/3)=-√3 /2
sin (π/3)=√3 /2
sin is an odd function.

2007-01-11 09:19:25 · answer #6 · answered by yupchagee 7 · 0 0

false, because you need to do your own homework!

2007-01-11 09:19:09 · answer #7 · answered by Bobby Boucher 3 · 0 0

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