It is false; if it were true, then that would imply sine is an even function. But it's not; sine is an odd function.
Also, sin(-pi/3) can also be written as sin (-pi/3 + 2pi), since you obtain the same point on the unit circle by going one revolution. sin(-pi/3 + 2pi) = sin(-pi/3 + 6pi/3) = sin(5pi/3)
sin(5pi/3) = -sqrt(3)/2, and
sin(pi/3) = sqrt(3)/2
As you can see, they're not equal.
2007-01-11 09:15:52
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answer #1
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answered by Puggy 7
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It's false: sin(-pi/3) = -sin(pi/3).
Expand sin(0 - pi/3) = sin 0 cos pi/3 - cos 0 sin pi/3.
Now sin 0 = 0 and cos 0 =1 and so you get -sin(pi/3).
2007-01-11 09:16:59
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answer #2
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answered by steiner1745 7
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no it's false, the sine fuction is Odd, not even, hence Sin(- anything) = - Sin(anything)....therefore, sin(-pi/3) = - sin(pi/3)
2007-01-11 09:17:36
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answer #3
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answered by Psycho 3
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In general sin(-x) = -sin(x)
So the statement is false.
2007-01-11 09:27:56
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answer #4
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answered by ironduke8159 7
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sin(pi/3) is equal to sqrroot(3)/2
sin( -pi/3) is equal to negative sqrroot(3)/2
so the answer is false
hope this helps
2007-01-11 09:19:14
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answer #5
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answered by jr52889 3
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False
sin(-Ï/3)=-â3 /2
sin (Ï/3)=â3 /2
sin is an odd function.
2007-01-11 09:19:25
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answer #6
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answered by yupchagee 7
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false, because you need to do your own homework!
2007-01-11 09:19:09
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answer #7
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answered by Bobby Boucher 3
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