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1. "Hamlet claims that his madness is feigned, an "antic disposition" which he puts on for his own purposes. Why would Hamlet want to feign madness? How can an appearance of insanity help him achieve his ends? Is he really sane throughout the play, or does he ever cross the line into madness? What about Ophelia's mad scene? Is it real or geigned? Is there "method in her madness" as well, or is she entirely irrational? Why has she gone mad? (What two reasons do her songs suggest?)"

2. "Hamlet is a play in which nothing can be taken at face value: appearances are frequently deceptive, and many characters engage in play-acting, spying and pretense. What deliberate attempts are made at deception? Are the intended audiences deceived? While some deceptions are perpetrated in order to conceal secrets, others aim to uncover hidden truths. Which are which? To what extent are they successful? Note references to appearances, disguises, pretense, seeming, masks, acting, etc."

2007-01-11 08:38:58 · 5 answers · asked by skiiermandan 3 in Arts & Humanities Books & Authors

5 answers

wow i think so

2007-01-11 08:41:33 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 4 2

1. It's not clear what Hamlet hopes to gain by pretending to be insane. Presumably he hopes to make Claudius feel he is not a threat--however, Hamlet's behavior (staging the play and killing Polonius) has exactly the opposite effect. For this reason, many critics have decided he is truly insane for at least part of the play--at the least, he behaves so irrationally that he might as well be insane. By contrast, I feel Ophelia really is crazy after her father dies; it's true there are some pointed references to other characters in her songs, but these could be dramatic irony aimed at the reader by Shakespeare. No sane person ever died the way Ophelia dies, singing as she drowns.

2007-01-11 08:54:26 · answer #2 · answered by angel_deverell 4 · 1 0

First, we can say that Hamlets insanity is surely a front, because many others see the Ghost of his Father. Second, we can say that Hamlet believes the Ghost, because of his decision to "wipe away all other knowledge" He wishes to become a vessel of revenge to destroy his fathers murderer, yet he is unable, so he fegins madness to purchase time and to hide what he truly knows.

Hamlet intentionally plays mad, and then puts on a play to draw out his uncle and mother's guilt, this deception works, and leaves his uncle distraught. While Hamlet's madness is done to conceal his true thoughts, his play is put on to reveal the truth.

While both are ultimatly successful, Hamlets inability to be come as single-minded as he wishes in his plot for revenge, causes the entire play. Not until the end, when his mother is dead, can he finally resolve to kill his step father.

2007-01-11 09:32:40 · answer #3 · answered by doomed 2 · 1 0

the line is "regrettably undesirable Yorick! I knew him, Horatio" now no longer "knew him appropriate". start up the essay like this: "Hamlet eh? appropriate, now no longer there's a play and an 'arf'. mutually as that's previous that's now no longer as rubbish as you will likely think of of, whether i did now no longer understand something that replaced into suggested in it" sturdy? Or "Hamlet by applying skill of William Shakespeare is a play approximately..." and then make sparkling what that's a bout (you have learn it I pressume?). i'm now no longer able to enable you recognize what that's approximately by actuality as at as quickly as as I learn it I additionally learn Macbeth on an same time and that i've got have been given them the two totally perplexed in my innovations :P something to do with absolutely everyone all death in one room indoors of seconds of the different suitable on the top, you recognize, idiotically.

2016-12-12 09:23:43 · answer #4 · answered by fette 4 · 0 0

Darnell is right

2007-01-11 08:51:36 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

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