2007-01-11 08:11:36 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
If your divorce decree doesn't specifically mention the existence of the previous custody order, it overrides the original order, however, the Complaint for divorce defnitely should have mentioned any other orders out there.
2007-01-11 08:23:46 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Most likely whichever one was finalized by the court last would have precedence. Depends on the terms of each though and your state.
2007-01-11 16:16:17 · answer #2 · answered by Goose&Tonic 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i doubt it b/c divorce decrees don't over ride any creditors...like if in the divorce it says that one will pay this and one will pay this. visa or your mortgage company don't care, they want their money. i would assume this would be the case in a custody dispute.
2007-01-11 16:17:15 · answer #3 · answered by Jen 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Whichever is the most recent order by the judge is the one that should be abided by.
2007-01-11 16:20:32 · answer #4 · answered by ♥Stacy 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋