until recentley (Nov 8th 06) i worked for a large UK bank, after i had quit, i recieved one last paycheque, however i had been payed a minus amount, (-£600 roughly) they also took my holiday allowance and used it to pay back some of the 600, now i have recieved a latter dated the 10th of jan, asking for me to pay them the money back. my question is, do i legaly have to repay this money as i feel it is they who owe me money.
Please bear in mind that this is UK specific.
2007-01-11 05:41:59 · 4 answers · asked by Goodall 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
in response to the first 2 questions.
there was no uniform (was in a call centre) i had not recieved any advances nor any bonus pay, worked there for a few months, and unfortunately have no idea why they think i owe them money.
2007-01-11 05:53:57 · update #1
There can be situations where an ex-emplyee can owe money to an employer. These could be things like advances, statutory fines, board awards etc.
You did not state why the money was debited.
** After reading feedback...
Yeas they can debit you. You need to contact them by phone or registered letter and find out why. It may be as simple as a mistake on thier part. After you find out why, you can ask them to reverse it. Worse case scenario, you go to the legal route and talk to the labour ministry or sue.
2007-01-11 05:48:48 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Several things, most of which have been covered by other respondents ... but some that are not.
They can hit you up for money (and force you to pay it) IF:
- you received a 'signing bonus' or some other pay advance upon beginning employment.
- you obtained company-supplied clothing (uniforms, etc) ... in this case, you can likely get the charges reversed if you return the clothing.
- there was a clause in your employment contract that stipulated you must work for a certain period of time (a 'probationary' period) ... and you didn't.
- your pay schedule was 'in advance' for hours worked, rather than 'in arrears' for hours worked. 'In advance' means that you'd be paid on Tuesday for hours worked Monday and Tuesday, plus hours worked up until the end of the week ... even though you hadn't worked them yet. 'In arrears' would be payment on Friday for hours worked from last payday to end of business on THAT Friday. If you're being paid 'in advance' - and you quit between paydays - then it is quite possible that they had paid you for time you hadn't actually worked ... hence the deduction, or asking you to pay it back.
As for holiday time ... I'm assuming you're working on an accrual method (work some number of hours to obtain some number of hours vacation, beginning from a certain point in your employment period). As they used those hours against they 'debt' they figure you owe, I'm pretty sure you fall into the 'in advance' payment category.
2007-01-11 06:20:44 · answer #2 · answered by CanTexan 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Most companies have a employee hand book that you can reference as to any reasons an employee would be "fined" for leaving the company. Also check the agreement you signed upon starting work. You may not have read the small print carefully.
2007-01-11 05:54:17 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
first did u owe any money to them? did u receive a starting bonus? how long did u work there?did u owe for uniforms ect please explain more
2007-01-11 05:48:51 · answer #4 · answered by southern65 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋