You can prove (ab)^n = a^n * b^n for all n, using induction. It's been done for n=2 by lots of people here, the next step is proving that if it's true for a given n, it's also true for n+1.
So, given (ab)^n = a^n * b^n for some n, we have
(ab)^(n+1)
= (ab)^n * (ab)^1 (expanding)
= a^n * b^n * ab (by hypothesis)
= a^n * a * b^n * b (rearranging factors)
= a^(n+1) * b^(n+1).
QED.
2007-01-11 01:33:53
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Simple.
First - squaring means multiplying by itself
(a * b) * (a * b)
As it is all multiplication the brackets aren't needed
a * b * a * b
You can rearrange the terms
a * a * b * b
Again, looking at what squaring means. This is the same as a^2 * b^2
2007-01-11 09:19:33
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answer #2
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answered by Tom :: Athier than Thou 6
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Go to class 5
2007-01-11 09:30:54
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Take examples as
a=2, b=3 then find
LHS -
a*b= 2*3=6
(6)^2=36 ---------{1}
RHS-
(a)^2=2^2=4
(b)^2=3^2=9
(a)^2*(b)^2= 4*9=36-----------{2}
Therefore {1} ={2}
2007-01-11 09:27:22
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answer #4
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answered by Haritha 2
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LHS
=(a*b)^2
=(a*b)*(a*b)
=a*b*a*b
=a*a*b*b
=a^2*b^2
=RHS (proven)
2007-01-11 09:16:34
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answer #5
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answered by leafinthewind 1
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(ab)^2=(ab)(ab)
rearrange the terms
=aabb=a^2 b^2
2007-01-11 09:12:06
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answer #6
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answered by Professor Maddie 4
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If greek please e-mail me!!!
(a*b)^2=a^2*b^2
(a*b)^2
=(a*b)*(a*b)
=a*b*a*b
=a^2*b^2
2007-01-11 09:25:28
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answer #7
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answered by Bill 1
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