2007-01-10 20:44:47 · 11 answers · asked by majid a 1 in Social Science ➔ Gender Studies
Are we talking no "O"'s at all or no "o"'s during intercourse because most of us can masturbate up a good one.
2007-01-11 00:22:43 · answer #1 · answered by Gone fishin' 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They all have them, just not with men. Watch a woman in the shower she can have an orgasm in 5 minutes.
2007-01-11 12:22:58 · answer #2 · answered by King Midas 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They say 60% of men can not get thier woman to orgasm
If I did not love my wife and was 21 again I would be looking for some of those women
2007-01-12 21:45:42 · answer #3 · answered by hononegah1988 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'd say a majority, well not to say that they have not had an orgasm at all. But a woman does not orgasm everytime esp. through standard or mandatory sex (just intercourse). I know I don't everytime, but we great pretenders and just say we coming to rub ur egos.
2007-01-11 05:01:47 · answer #4 · answered by Thato 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
All woman can orgasm. Its your skill to make them ***.
2007-01-11 09:40:41 · answer #5 · answered by kenn 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Some. I have given more orgasms then I have'nt so the ratio is good. Just use your tongue.
2007-01-11 07:53:46 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The official count is 34%.
Now get back to doing kid stuff and let the sex stuff take care of itself.
2007-01-11 04:56:04 · answer #7 · answered by Jack 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
24%
2007-01-11 04:51:56 · answer #8 · answered by ashleighshea1982 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Dont worry about ALL women.. take care of the one you're with.
2007-01-11 04:49:16 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
You have to know how to work it
2007-01-11 04:48:12 · answer #10 · answered by Pimpsta© 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋