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A train traveling at 60 mph takes exactly 3 seconds to enter a tunnel and a further 30 seconds to pass completely through it. How long is the train and how long is the tunnel?

i can solve it once i set up the formula but i have NO idea whatsoever on how to set up the variables & stuff. Im not looking for answers, just help understanding. THANK YOUU!

2007-01-10 10:37:56 · 15 answers · asked by heygirl1914 2 in Education & Reference Homework Help

15 answers

you could just think of it a little differently.
it's going at 60 mph, so it goes 1 mile per minute.
so, how far does it go in half a minute?
half a mile, of course.
so the train plus the tunnel is half a mile long.
also, we know that it takes 1/10 of the time for it to enter as it does to exit.
so the train must be 1/10 the length of the tunnel.
so... x + y = 1
and x=.1y
substitute .1y in for x and it's easy.

2007-01-10 11:26:22 · answer #1 · answered by t3h_1337z0rz 3 · 0 0

edit...
after doing it on paper and converting it to either mps or fps., i agree with Vic, the train is moving 88fps and is 264 feet long, the tunnel is 1/2 a mile .
The formula for the train is 60/3600 seconds=X and then do 3X=train. The formula for the tunnel is, 60/3600=miles per second. and take the MPS X 30 seconds.
Adding the sum of the time the train will leave is not necessary, because as she stated in her word problem, after fully entering it, it takes 30 seconds to fully get out. Meaning the 30 seconds start from wen the caboose enters the tunnel and to when the caboose leaves the other end.

2007-01-10 10:55:33 · answer #2 · answered by Chestudent 2 · 0 0

I am not quite sure of the answer but I would think you should look at:
converting the 60 mph to seconds
make length equal to 3sec x the conversation of miles per second (your answer to length would be in miles)
than solve for the tunnel by multiplying by 30.
I hope this helps a bit.
Good luck!

2007-01-10 11:07:11 · answer #3 · answered by lil' M 1 · 0 0

Convert mph to feet per second
6o mph * 5280 feet in a mile / 3600 seconds in an hour.
so the train is traveling 88 fps.

Distance = Rate * Time.
Distance is your variable.
x = 88fps* 3 seconds
the train is 264 ft long.

the tunnel is 30 seconds long
X = 88fps x 30
Length of the tunnel is 2,640 ft. which is 1/2 a mile

2007-01-10 10:54:32 · answer #4 · answered by Vic 2 · 1 0

Well, the train is 1/20 mi in length which I think is 264 ft. The tunnel is 1/2 mile long.

2007-01-10 10:51:31 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

This is a problem of conversion:
60 miles per hour is about 1 mile per minute is about .01667 mile per second.

If it takes 3 seconds for the train to enter the tunnel, it's 3 seconds x .01667 miles/seconds.
That is the lenth of the train.

If it takes 30 seconds for the train to pass through the tunnel.
It's 30 seconds x .01667 miles/seconds.
That is the length of the tunnel.

I think it is something like that...Hope that helps...

2007-01-10 10:56:35 · answer #6 · answered by Dara 2 · 0 0

the tunnel is 300 feet long and the train is 30 feet long

2007-01-10 10:51:33 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

the speed of the train is 60mph=6mpm=0.0167mps

*the long of the train is the result of multiplaying
train speed by time needed to enter
=0.0167x3=0.05 mile

*the long of the tunnel is the result of multiplaying
train speed by time needed to enter&pass compleetely
=0.0167x(3+30)
=0.0167x33=0.55 mile
right???!!

im sure this is the correct answer
dara forgot to sum the time needed to enter up to the time needed to pass compleetely

2007-01-10 11:24:36 · answer #8 · answered by zak 1 · 0 0

pretty sure u convert mph into miles per second......then find out how many miles it travels in 3 seconds or 30 seconds

2007-01-10 10:49:33 · answer #9 · answered by bravestdawg101 3 · 0 0

First step -- isolate between the variables. subsequently, upload 3/y to the two facets of the decrease equation. This leaves you with that equation analyzing a million/x = 3/2 + 3/y. Invert the two facets, leaving x = a million/(3/2 + 3/y). Plug this cost for x into the best equation, which then turns into 4/(a million/(3/2 + 3/y)) + a million/y = 5/3. yet a million/(a million/(3/2 + 3/y)) = 3/2 + 3/y, so multiplying this by potential of four supplies 12/2 + 12/y + a million/y = 5/3. putting all the y's on one side and all the numbers on the different supplies 12/y + a million/y = 5/3 - 12/2. including those supplies thirteen/y = (-6+5/3) = -18/3 + 5/3 = -thirteen/3. subsequently y = -3. Plugging this cost for y into the best equation yields 4/x + a million/(-3) = 5/3 including a million/3 to the two side yields 4/x = 5/3 + a million/3 . or 6/3, or 2. when you consider that 4/x = 2, x could desire to equivalent 2. Checking, employing the two values, 4/2 + a million/(-3) = 5/3, and a pair of - a million/3 = 5/3 a million/2 -(3/-3) = 3/2, and a million/2 + a million = 2.

2016-11-28 02:50:31 · answer #10 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

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