haven't taken any course in quantum field theory or read any advanced books about it, but I would like to make what I think is a deduction.
An electric field can be explained by changing magnetic field. Provided that some property of this changing magnetic field was met, the electric field may correspond to the electric field produced by a subatomic particle. So far, I don't know of any other type of field that would generate an electric field other than a changing magnetic field. Do the quantum physicists explain the electric field of subatomic particles this way? Do they know the changing magnetic field that would be necesary to generate the electric potential of the proton for instance?
2007-01-10 08:32:19 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
think of it like this electric fields are like road signs. they tell the electrons where to go. but to can't change the electric protential of a proton. what are you trying to make gold from lead?
2007-01-10 08:39:50 · answer #1 · answered by ... 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It's actually the other way around. Einstein suggested that the magnetic field was the relativistic manifestation of the electric field. Maxwell's Equations show the mathematical relationship between them. You can't create the electric field around a proton with a changing magnetic field, since the field would need to be increasing forever without limit. See the third reference for an explanation of magnetism on the quantum scale.
2007-01-10 10:22:35 · answer #2 · answered by Frank N 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
An electric field can be created by a changing magnetic field. True.
But it can also be created by the presence of an electrically charged particle, without any magnetic field present.
2007-01-10 09:56:03 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
hi Michael, that's provided that the area between the costs get doubled. So electrostatic skill might want to get decreased to at least one/2 of the unique let a million/2 m V^2 be the KE on the starting up. let a million/2 m v^2 is the KE at the same time as the area is doubled. So 2*(a million/2 m v^2) = a million/2 m V^2 OR V^2 = 2v^2 = 2*100 = 2 hundred subsequently V = ./2 hundred = 10*./2 = 10*a million.414 = 14.14 m/s So decision B is the right one.
2016-12-02 02:33:57 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋