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has to do with science!!!!!!!!!!!
if you know thtrue answer please help me???!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

2007-01-10 07:55:29 · 27 answers · asked by ? 1 in Education & Reference Homework Help

27 answers

it all depends on if you asked this question twice.

2007-01-10 07:58:25 · answer #1 · answered by user name 5 · 0 3

The official answer is NO. Each coin flip is an independent event, unaffected by what came before. You could have a string of 100 heads, and the probability of heads on the next flip is still 1/2.

Keep in mind, though, that this only for a fair coin that is truly flipped at random. In the real world, however, there some coin flips can be affected by the position of the coin at the start. Particularly if the toss is not high, a coin will often land on the opposite (heads or tails) of where it starts.

2007-01-11 09:44:45 · answer #2 · answered by dmb 5 · 0 0

No.

That's why the newspaper printing lists of lottery numbers that are "hot" or "due" are ridiculous.

While it is true that if you tossed the same coin a million times (assuming the coin is properly balanced, etc.) you will get approximately 500,000 heads and 500,000 tails it is not true that because you flipped heads 10 times in a row that it is more than 50% likely that the next flip will be heads (or tails). The coin has no memory of which way it came up on previous flips.

The only way to use previous (supposedly) random events to predict future random events is if in fact the events are not random. If I tossed a coin 1,000 times and it always came up heads I would assume there's something about the coin (it's magnetized or imbalanced or whatever) that makes it tend to come up heads. In that case I would bet on heads for flip 1,001.

Speaking of probability, a friend of mine once explained his "system" for betting on the lottery and I told him he might as well just bet 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 and he said "that's crazy, do you realize how unlikely it is that those numbers will come up" and I said "exactly as unlikely as any other particular set of 6 numbers".

Another friend of mine used to say the lottery is just a tax on people who are not very good at math.

2007-01-10 16:08:52 · answer #3 · answered by frugernity 6 · 0 0

absolutely not
the events have nothing to do with each other

People often make this mistake when speaking of "the law of averages." If your coin has come up 49 times heads, the odds of it coming up tails is still 50/50, no matter what came up the other 49 times.
However, if you look at a long series of coin tosses, you will find that normally, the number of heads and tails will even out on a correctly weighted coin.

2007-01-10 16:01:07 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No the events are totally independent. The odd remain the same on the second toss.

But over a large number of tosses you should see almost exactly 50/50 odds. The more throw the closer your percentages should come to .5

2007-01-10 16:01:11 · answer #5 · answered by aiguyaiguy 4 · 0 0

Well the results of the 1st toss does not increase the probability that either heads or tails will land on any single toss.

Some argue that head is slightly more likely on a traditional quarter. This was a conclusion of scientific study based on the weight and design of the coin. (marginal difference though at best)

2007-01-10 16:00:05 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

No. A coin has no memory. No matter how many times you have tossed the thing, the odds remain 50:50 on the next toss. (Assuming the coin is an honest one, of course.)

2007-01-10 15:58:50 · answer #7 · answered by auntb93again 7 · 1 0

Only if the first toss causes a blemish in the surface the second coin is tossed on. It would be unfair if the blemish caused the coin to fall in a direction that God did not want it too!

2007-01-10 16:02:17 · answer #8 · answered by KIB 4 · 0 0

No. The probability of the toss is the same. The odds remain 50/50.

2007-01-10 15:59:43 · answer #9 · answered by Kevin O 1 · 1 0

Each time you toss the coin, you will either get heads or tails. There's a 50-50 chance of getting one or the other.

2007-01-16 19:38:21 · answer #10 · answered by diniandbo812 3 · 0 0

No, each toss of the coin is independent and has the same chance of being heads or tails.

2007-01-10 15:58:37 · answer #11 · answered by fdm215 7 · 1 0

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