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Can we use them interchangeably? For example; what is the difference between " I have learned English for 6 years" and " I have been learning english for 6 years."

2007-01-09 21:00:01 · 2 answers · asked by bouha 1 in Education & Reference Words & Wordplay

2 answers

No you cant use them interchangeably.

I have learned English for 6 years. (means I may still be learning and may continue for more years.)
I have been learning English for six years.(implies: I may have stopped by now when saying it).

Look at my example below:

Present perfect: David has fallen in love "has" is the perfective auxiliary and expresses the perfective aspect in the verb phrase "has fallen".

Present Progressive: David is falling in love.

Good luck.

2007-01-09 21:37:50 · answer #1 · answered by ari-pup 7 · 0 0

We use the present perfect in two situations:

1/ To express an action beginning in the past and existing up to the present. eg I have lived here for 6 years.

2/ To indicate an action completed in the past but with no reference to finished time eg I have eaten a sandwich.

We use the the present perfect continuous in 3 situations

1/ As per 1 and 2 above. In short,there is no difference in the same situations.

2/ To express a temporary situation completed in the past with no reference to finished time. eg My sister has been working in a shop to earn some money (this is not her PERMANENT job, just temporary)

3/ To express an action completed in the very recent past with evidence of its completion still visible eg John's face is red because he has been running.

Note that we do NOT use the present perfect continuous when referring to quantities ie I have sent three emails today, NOT I have been sending...

Hope this helps.

2007-01-10 05:09:30 · answer #2 · answered by Superdog 7 · 0 0

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