2007-01-09 19:57:48 · 5 answers · asked by Raymond 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
Yes it does. It only becomes negligible in one point of reference.
2007-01-09 20:04:57 · answer #1 · answered by Luis U 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You mean like an electric or gravitational field I would assume. The reason would be that there are no magnetic monopoles known to exist. If you cut a magnet in half, each half has a north and south pole, you don't get one north half and one south half. Becuase magnetism is always a dipole, field lines will not go out infinitely.
2007-01-10 04:07:45 · answer #2 · answered by msi_cord 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It does, but eventually you get to a point where it's not zero, but small enough that it can't influence anything.
How much does the ocean level rise when you throw a rock into it? You can prove that it is not zero, but it's too small to be observed.
2007-01-10 18:35:23 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It does.
But its effect falls off faster than the 1/R^2 you are used to from electrostatics and gravity.
2007-01-10 04:08:47 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because it's area of influence is limited.
2007-01-10 04:05:38 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋