2007-01-09 10:39:23 · 6 answers · asked by Holly S 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
No. It didn't become widely available in Western Europe until at least the 17th century (not sure how widespread distribution was before then.)
Found a good site.
2007-01-09 10:43:14 · answer #1 · answered by Underground Man 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. Coffee only came to Italy, the first area in Europe to have it in 1654.
Since the Middle Ages end either in 1453 with the Fall of Byzantium, or in 1492 with Columbus' Voyage to the New World (depending on who you ask), coffee doesn't make it to Europe until 150-200 years into the Early Modern era.
2007-01-12 06:28:16 · answer #2 · answered by Elise K 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
While nobody is sure exactly how coffee was originally discovered as a beverage, it is believed that its cultivation and use began as early as the 9th century. Some authorities claim that it was cultivated in the Yemen earlier, around AD 575. The only thing that seems certain is that it originated in Ethiopia, from where it traveled to the Yemen about 600 years ago, and from Arabia it began its journey around the world.
2007-01-09 11:09:42 · answer #3 · answered by goodolelady 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. British Medieval history spans the dates 950 to 1547
"Coffee enters Europe through the port of Venice. The first coffeehouse opens in Italy in 1654...1652 The first coffeehouse opens in England" http://www.koffeekorner.com/koffeehistory.htm
2007-01-09 10:47:49 · answer #4 · answered by Dreaux~ 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no, but the islamic world did...the muslims had coffe during the middle ages
2007-01-09 11:05:00 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Probably.
2007-01-09 10:43:49 · answer #6 · answered by vanamont7 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋