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a pre-algebra problem:
How is it possible for 11 + 2 to equal 1?

2007-01-09 08:51:00 · 16 answers · asked by Tiya_b(a)na(n)as[z] 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

16 answers

When you divide 11 + 2 by 13.
In Europe and many parts of the world 11 o'clock plus 2 hours is 13. Or 23 hours plus 2 hours is 1 o'clock.

2007-01-09 08:55:49 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

On a clock 11 + 2 = 1

2007-01-09 09:10:17 · answer #2 · answered by 1ofSelby's 6 · 0 0

A complex equation that includes infinite variables of decimals in algebraic terms 11+2 can equal 1. I mean its possible for 1=2.

2007-01-09 08:56:19 · answer #3 · answered by RANGERS MANIAC 2 · 0 0

Is the "11/1/4" supposed to be the mixed number eleven and one quarter? If so, your first steps are correct in getting to 10x > 45/4 - 34 Do the arithmetic on the right side: 45/4 - 136/4 = -91/4 This gets you: 10x > -91/4 Divide both sides by 10: x > (-91/4) / 10 x > (-910/40) / 10 x > -91/40 or x > -2 11/40

2016-05-22 23:48:25 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

11+2=13 -11=2--1=1 LINDSAY or 2-1=1

2007-01-09 09:07:03 · answer #5 · answered by Lindsay Jane 6 · 0 0

11 ones + 2 negative fives

2007-01-09 08:57:03 · answer #6 · answered by Leonardo D 3 · 0 0

11 o'clock + 2 hours = 1 o'clock

2007-01-09 08:58:29 · answer #7 · answered by LarbradorianGuy 3 · 0 0

11 o'clock + 2 hrs = 1 o'clock

2007-01-09 08:56:47 · answer #8 · answered by nick w 2 · 0 0

11 o'clock + 2 hours = 1 o'clock

2007-01-09 08:54:43 · answer #9 · answered by ? 3 · 6 0

As a few people have said ... on a clock.

Formally, clock (or modular) arithmetic is the arithmetic of any nontrivial homomorphic image of the ring of integers.

It's a fertile ground for mathematics investigations at many levels of ability.

The references show two levels of description/investigation

2007-01-09 09:05:24 · answer #10 · answered by Dr Bob UK 3 · 0 0

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