If a sale by homeowner contract has been signed between both parties but has not been notarized is it still legally binding? After signing the contract the homeowner decided he didn't agree to one of the terms in the contract and we had not yet had it notarized. The contract states that neither party was represented by a broker or agent, that its governed by the laws of the state of Utah, and in addition to both parties signature each page is intialtied by both parties.
2007-01-09 06:46:37 · 2 answers · asked by G 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Call a real estate attorney or someone who deals in contract law, dont even waste your time asking people on here, who may or may not have a juris doctor agree. Call a professional
2007-01-09 07:05:51 · answer #1 · answered by defenseonly 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Any contract is subject to amendment if both parties are in agreement. If both are not, either abide by it or breach it and accept the forthcoming litigation (and legal expense).
2007-01-09 07:00:03 · answer #2 · answered by Gunny T 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋