When times get very hard, as they did in Germany in the early 1930s, people look around desperately for a change from failed political parties. Perhaps this may lead them to vote for parties massively against their interests - a Jewish person voting for Hitler would arguably be the ultimate example.
It would be of contemporary help to know the answer to this question because of cases where politicians deny being racist by instancing people from ethnic minorities who say they have voted for the extremist party concerned.
2007-01-09
06:46:03
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7 answers
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asked by
Philosophical Fred
4
in
Arts & Humanities
➔ History
P.S. Lyn, I'm glad you find the question interesting. The very sad thing, though, is that the families would not be around to cover up the record if they had all been killed in a concentration camp. I think a historian looking at this issue would have to find documents from 1932/1933 e.g perhaps a Jew writing to the Nazis and asking why are they treating him or her so badly when (s)he voted for Hitler. Of course, the historian has to work with the fragments that survive. Or perhaps a Jewish refugee might have left a recollection outside Germany
2007-01-09
07:04:52 ·
update #1
P.P.S. OK, strictly speaking Hitler was appointed Chancellor. But there were Reichstag elections in 1932/1933, and a referendum to suspend (i.e. kill) the Weimar constitution, as a result of which Hitler came to power. Effectively, people who voted for the Nazi party in these were voting for Hitler.
2007-01-09
07:20:24 ·
update #2