f(x) = ln(ln(ln(x)))
We know what the restriction of just ln(x) is; it is such that x > 0.
Therefore, it follows that
ln(ln(x)) > 0
If we take the antilog of both sides (that is, bring both sides to the power of e), we will get rid of the ln, to get
ln(x) > e^0, or
ln(x) > 1. Again, we take the antilog of both sides of the inequality, to obtain
x > e^1, or
x > e
Therefore, since this inequality represents the values which x CAN be, it also represents the domain.
The domain of f is the interval (e, infinity).
Note that e has a round bracket because the inequality is strictly greater than.
2007-01-08 13:06:45
·
answer #1
·
answered by Puggy 7
·
2⤊
0⤋
You want to take the ln four times so my guess would be e^e
to infinity, so that the outermost ln would have a postive arguemnt.
Let's see how that checks out...
ln(ln(ln(ln(x)))
ln(ln(ln(ln((e^e) =
ln(ln(ln(e)=
ln(ln(1) =
ln(0) =
So the domain would be (e^e, infinity). You wouldn't include the endpoint e^e because in the final step you would be taking ln 0, which is undefined. But anything greater than e^e, would be ok in tihs function.
2007-01-08 13:14:47
·
answer #2
·
answered by Joni DaNerd 6
·
1⤊
0⤋
ln (x) is defined when x > 0.
So, f(x) is defined when ln(ln(x)) > 0
i.e. when exp(ln(ln(x))) > exp(0)
i.e. when ln (x) > 1
i.e. when x > exp(1) = e.
So the domain is (e, infinity).
2007-01-08 13:06:13
·
answer #3
·
answered by Scarlet Manuka 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
log e to the y
domain -1 to 1
i am just taking a guess
2007-01-08 13:06:02
·
answer #4
·
answered by rosemships 2
·
0⤊
6⤋